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Old January 13th, 2018, 09:45 AM   #1

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About what Peter Hill calls "Florida Job"


So fellows, I've some doubts about one subject concerning negotiations between USA and Spain, in 1805 about Florida limitations and possession.

So acording to Peter Hill in Napoleon Troublesome Americans,

Quote:
By the fall of 1805, diplomatic currents flowing in both Paris andWashington
converged on a money-laundering scheme which, had it been carried
out, would have bilked Spain of both Floridas, filled Napoleon’s
coffers, and made Thomas Jefferson an accomplice to international fleecing on a grand scale. As envisioned by the ever artful Tallyrand, the plan
featured the minimal risk of transporting Spanish bullion across waters
infested by British men-of-war. It assumed that neutral U.S. vessels could
accomplish the crossing in relative safety. Each party, however, envisioned
the details of the Florida ‘‘job’’ somewhat differently which may
account for its ultimate undoing.

(...)
A western boundary on the Colorado River
was acceptable, as was a thirty-year no-settlement zone between it and the
Rio Grande. Spain, for her part, was to pay off U.S. maritime claimants to
the tune of an estimated four million. The plan seemed simple enough:the U.S. would pay out five million and get back four, along with both
Floridas. As to the mechanics of the cash transfers, however, the cabinet
memorandum made no mention of Talleyrand’s condition that the
‘‘bills’’ for settling U.S. spoliation claims be drawn on Spain’s New World
colonies.
Can someone explain me how Napoleon would fill is coffers. (is it because I would take Spain later, by invasion ?)
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Old January 13th, 2018, 10:15 AM   #2
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Something is obviously missing here. It sounds like a variation on the Louisiana Purchase. Louisiana was Spanish until given to France in exchange for Parma in Italy. Napolean then sold Louisiana to the US for $15 million. So France converted Parma into $15 mil.

If Spain gave Florida to France in exchange for some other territory that Napoleon did not want, and then Napoleon sold Florida to the US for $5 million, then I can see Napoleon filling his coffers.

Louisiana for Parma came about because the Spanish negotiator was not very good and negotiated a really bad deal for Spain. It sounds like Napoleon was hoping to repeat his success against Spain at the negotiating table, but maybe Spain was not going to fall for it a second tiime and that's why the Florida deal fell through.
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Old January 13th, 2018, 11:01 AM   #3

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Quote:
Originally Posted by Chlodio View Post
Something is obviously missing here. It sounds like a variation on the Louisiana Purchase. Louisiana was Spanish until given to France in exchange for Parma in Italy. Napolean then sold Louisiana to the US for $15 million. So France converted Parma into $15 mil.

If Spain gave Florida to France in exchange for some other territory that Napoleon did not want, and then Napoleon sold Florida to the US for $5 million, then I can see Napoleon filling his coffers.

Louisiana for Parma came about because the Spanish negotiator was not very good and negotiated a really bad deal for Spain. It sounds like Napoleon was hoping to repeat his success against Spain at the negotiating table, but maybe Spain was not going to fall for it a second tiime and that's why the Florida deal fell through.
I think the plan was making USA buy Western Florida from Spain, before Napoelon invade Spain. (making the money from the buying transportable in USA ships, so safeguarded against UK menace).
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