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Old January 15th, 2013, 09:31 PM   #1

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Why 1892 ?


In 1962 president Kennedy wanted to attack Cuba, however congress was reluctant, they felt America a peacful country and intervening in internal affairs of other countries unAmerican. Kennedy needed to convince them otherwise to get the Bay of Pigs authorised.

Kennedy got Secretary of State Dean Rusk to compile a report for him to present to congress to show that in fact it was American to use force against foreign countries, the report is called "instances of use of united states forces abroad 1792-1962". The report shows America used it's armed forces against foreign countries every year but one, 1892. An update of the report shows that they have been used every year since 1962-2012, so the only year in US history it hasn't invaded another country is 1892. Everyone in America become gay in 1892.

So question, Why didn't America invade anywhere in 1892.
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Old January 15th, 2013, 09:33 PM   #2

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What? We're not entitled to getting a year off once in a while? Warmaking is a tiresome business.
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Old January 15th, 2013, 09:46 PM   #3

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Invading or occupying or liberating?
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Old January 15th, 2013, 11:54 PM   #4

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Quote:
Originally Posted by ucanefan View Post
Invading or occupying or liberating?
The definition varies depending on who is on the receiving end.
When US troops arrived in Cuba in 1898 the Spanish saw invaders, the Cuban rebels (terrorists?) saw liberators, the thousands of whores in Havana saw customers.
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Old January 16th, 2013, 01:27 AM   #5

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Quote:
Originally Posted by Ancientgeezer View Post
The definition varies depending on who is on the receiving end.
When US troops arrived in Cuba in 1898 the Spanish saw invaders, the Cuban rebels (terrorists?) saw liberators, the thousands of whores in Havana saw customers.
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Old January 16th, 2013, 03:21 AM   #6

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Quote:
Originally Posted by Toltec View Post
Kennedy got Secretary of State Dean Rusk to compile a report for him to present to congress to show that in fact it was American to use force against foreign countries, the report is called "instances of use of united states forces abroad 1792-1962". The report shows America used it's armed forces against foreign countries every year but one, 1892. An update of the report shows that they have been used every year since 1962-2012, so the only year in US history it hasn't invaded another country is 1892.
Got a source for these assertions?
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Old January 16th, 2013, 10:48 AM   #7

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Quote:
Originally Posted by Ancientgeezer View Post
The definition varies depending on who is on the receiving end.
When US troops arrived in Cuba in 1898 the Spanish saw invaders, the Cuban rebels (terrorists?) saw liberators, the thousands of whores in Havana saw customers.
Nice.
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Old January 16th, 2013, 11:19 AM   #8

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Here is a list updated in 2009. Years missing foreign actions that I see are:

1811
1819
1826
1828-1830
1837
1850
1861-1862
1869
1892
1935-1939
1954
1957

http://mercury.ethz.ch/serviceengine...-1798-2009.pdf

Last edited by unclefred; January 16th, 2013 at 11:25 AM.
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Old January 16th, 2013, 11:30 AM   #9

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Quote:
Originally Posted by unclefred View Post
1811
First one I checked, establishing a fort "Astoria" in a foreign country definitely counts as a hostile encroachment.

Battle_of_Woody_Point Battle_of_Woody_Point
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Old January 16th, 2013, 11:44 AM   #10
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Originally Posted by unclefred View Post
1819
1819 was the year of the Saginaw Cession. The breaking of the 1807 Treaty of Detroit and essentially annexing 6 million acres of Michigan by Gen. Cass would probably count as a hostile military incursion that occurred that year.
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