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Old July 12th, 2016, 12:59 AM   #1
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Indus Valley civilization unification


Did Indus valley really belong to same single civilization, i guess most small civilization in adjacent areas around same point of time were grouped together

based one my research and knowledge at-least 4 civilization would have existed which were grouped together either due to simplification or lack of evidence to show these are different civilization

According to me, the commonly called Indus civilization is mix of at-least 4 minor variant civilization
1. Mohenjo daro
2. Harappa
3. Dholavira
4.Birahnna/Rakhigarh

i will add more points later. just want to know what others think about this
'
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Old July 14th, 2016, 02:38 AM   #2
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It might be hard to know surely before we can translate Indus scripts. And I bit afraid that we can't find "Rosetta Stone" which could help us.
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Old July 14th, 2016, 04:04 AM   #3
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It might be hard to know surely before we can translate Indus scripts. And I bit afraid that we can't find "Rosetta Stone" which could help us.
WHAT IS exactly a Rosetta stone please explain?
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Old July 14th, 2016, 04:05 AM   #4
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I think I see two prong definition within the larger IVC realm namely Saraswati and Sindhu Civilization although it still cant explain how inner Gangetic plain had a Mithilanchal civilization not far off from the dates of later IVC periods.
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Old July 15th, 2016, 12:06 AM   #5
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WHAT IS exactly a Rosetta stone please explain?
it is a stone which had 3 different inscription which helped in decoding Egyptian hieroglyphics. although it was partially damaged most of the Egyptian script was identified and rest was assumed based on available variable documents
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Old July 15th, 2016, 02:14 AM   #6
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it is a stone which had 3 different inscription which helped in decoding Egyptian hieroglyphics. although it was partially damaged most of the Egyptian script was identified and rest was assumed based on available variable documents
how similar are the Indus Valley symbols to other scripts at that time namely Egpyitan hierogylphics and Aramaic script of Mesepotamia and the Pheonician script in Levant? Are there any similarity in these Indus valley written material and these scripts. That would be a starting point for comparison as these other three from the same time are all well known written scripts.
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Old July 20th, 2016, 09:55 PM   #7
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So I guess vedic followers don't want to argue coz it may reveal everything truth can't be hidden for long time.
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Old July 21st, 2016, 12:04 AM   #8
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So I guess vedic followers don't want to argue coz it may reveal everything truth can't be hidden for long time.
As far as I am concerned, I don't want to participate in this thread simply because I have no interest in IVC. It is one of the most boring topics of history, and I have no clue why so many Indians are obsessed with this. Personally, I do not even consider IVC to be a part of the Indian history, because India as a region was unified and demarcated by Indo-Aryans much later after the demise of the IVC. Before Indo-Aryans, there is no such thing as India or Indian civilisation and first historically significant records from India (oral or literal) are produced by Indo-Aryans, not by any IVC.

Last edited by Bhrigu; July 21st, 2016 at 12:10 AM.
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Old July 21st, 2016, 02:19 AM   #9

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As far as I am concerned, I don't want to participate in this thread simply because I have no interest in IVC. It is one of the most boring topics of history, and I have no clue why so many Indians are obsessed with this. Personally, I do not even consider IVC to be a part of the Indian history, because India as a region was unified and demarcated by Indo-Aryans much later after the demise of the IVC. Before Indo-Aryans, there is no such thing as India or Indian civilisation and first historically significant records from India (oral or literal) are produced by Indo-Aryans, not by any IVC.
I agree, I am also confused as to why Indians obsess over a civilisation which is so obscure that we cannot even be sure who it's true inheritors are. Almost every discussion on it relies on guess work or conjecture.
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Old July 21st, 2016, 02:52 AM   #10

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Originally Posted by Bhrigu View Post
As far as I am concerned, I don't want to participate in this thread simply because I have no interest in IVC. It is one of the most boring topics of history, and I have no clue why so many Indians are obsessed with this. Personally, I do not even consider IVC to be a part of the Indian history, because India as a region was unified and demarcated by Indo-Aryans much later after the demise of the IVC. Before Indo-Aryans, there is no such thing as India or Indian civilisation and first historically significant records from India (oral or literal) are produced by Indo-Aryans, not by any IVC.
Except that there is a fair to good chance that the IVC was Indo Aryan civilization to begin with. I don't think it is a coincidence that the Rig Vedic "aryavarta' and Indus Valley are a close match in spread as well as the holiest of the Rigvedic region of Brahmavarta closely corresponds to the oldest regions of the Indus Valley.
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