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Old December 25th, 2017, 05:47 PM   #21
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Vaderfan View Post
What the name means is hardly important, I was talking about the content.

And no, "Vedic" is not PIE. If you want to prove that then show me how all modern IE languages descend from it.



So, the only connection you have is the name? Ok, fine. Still, why do you think that Vikings were not Indo-European?
Exactly, I was talking about the content as well. I wanted to know what Edda has, so we could make some meaningful comparison.

Vedic is PIE. First show me how Vedic word Ashwa is derived from the hypothetical PIE, and I will show you the other way around. I will demonstrate to you that the reconstruction is entirely flawed, and the actual root word is quite different from the reconstructed one.
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Old December 25th, 2017, 06:08 PM   #22
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Congrats on doing those things. I myself am interested in learning Indian swordplay but have no idea how to go about it aside from moving back to India .
That depends on what you mean by "Indian' . We have many Indian Sikh's in my area. The sword is very important to these people culturally. But that is often hidden from public scrutiny, along with their other weapons .

One time, an Indian Sikh man who I am friendly with, was trying to sell me samosa at markets. He was hassling me and joking then saw my club shirt with logo and says;
" You need samosa for energy for your, sword fight. " I said , " Yes, but I do not hit your turban with it as the metal rings in there break my sword ..... then you use the rings to defeat me . "

He looked like he was struck by lightning; " How do you know about that ? ! "

" And I know you have a knife .... even now . "

He smiled, looked left and right to see no one watching and revealed it to me smiling.

" Okay, okay .... I buy a samosa ! "

( sword @ 1: 11 and note the rings in his turban )


Last edited by specul8; December 25th, 2017 at 06:17 PM.
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Old December 25th, 2017, 06:14 PM   #23
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what the hell does this topic even mean?
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Old December 25th, 2017, 06:15 PM   #24

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I find 30 references to 'Norse' in Tilak's 'Arctic Home in Vedas'. Need some time to study them before reporting here. (See below)
Quote:
Originally Posted by Pulakesin View Post
Congrats on doing those things. I myself am interested in learning Indian swordplay but have no idea how to go about it aside from moving back to India .
Check with Sikhs or Keralites if someone has a training center around where you live - or join Specul8's school.
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Originally Posted by specul8 View Post
I said, "Yes, but I do not hit your turban with it as the metal rings in there break my sword .. then you use the rings to defeat me."
Perhaps the East Asian swords are delicate. A few rings will not matter to my grandfathers hefty sword.
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File Type: jpg Norse2.jpg (20.2 KB, 1 views)

Last edited by Aupmanyav; December 25th, 2017 at 06:44 PM.
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Old December 25th, 2017, 07:02 PM   #25
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Aatreya View Post
Vedic is PIE. First show me how Vedic word Ashwa is derived from the hypothetical PIE, and I will show you the other way around. I will demonstrate to you that the reconstruction is entirely flawed, and the actual root word is quite different from the reconstructed one.
I don't have a dictionary of PIE etymologies on me, nor am I aware of historical developments of Indic branch of Indo-European, as my studies were focused on English and partly Polish language history. So, can't help you here. Neither do I care about the one word. Please answer the question I asked, how is Polish descendant from Sanskrit? How is English descendant from Sanskrit?

BTW, you seem to be confused on the meaning of PIE. It us hypothethical because it represents the form of the language from before the attestation. So, Sanskrit cannot be PIE due to the fact that it is attested.
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Old December 25th, 2017, 08:05 PM   #26
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Vaderfan View Post
I don't have a dictionary of PIE etymologies on me, nor am I aware of historical developments of Indic branch of Indo-European, as my studies were focused on English and partly Polish language history. So, can't help you here. Neither do I care about the one word. Please answer the question I asked, how is Polish descendant from Sanskrit? How is English descendant from Sanskrit?

BTW, you seem to be confused on the meaning of PIE. It us hypothethical because it represents the form of the language from before the attestation. So, Sanskrit cannot be PIE due to the fact that it is attested.
Then why do you claim the hypothetical language to be true? The reconstructed words do not conform to the corresponding root mentioned in Vedic (which is real), and so it has to be wrong. Whether you care about one word or not, it is not my problem either. All I know is that PIE fails in case of many such words. By the way, Proto does not mean there should not have been attestation. All it means it is the basic template from which its descendant languages have derived.

Coming to your question, frankly I have not charted the tree myself with Vedic as PIE, but I am certainly going to work on it.

On the other hand, I have gone through the existing way of classification, and the whole list of Vedic words and the corresponding Avestan words (the Iranian branch language). What I feel is that the current theory that hypothesizes the root word for both Vedic and Avestan is wrong, and is not supported by the most ancient Vedic works. Further I have made observations that indicate Vedic was more ancient of the two, and the Avestan language did not share sibling relationship with Vedic.

If the relationship between Vedic and Avestan is wrong, what is the point in finding out if Vedic gave rise to Polish and English?
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Old December 26th, 2017, 02:07 AM   #27

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Word roots are immutable. They do not change even over millenniums.
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Old December 26th, 2017, 02:19 AM   #28

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A battle axe is/was just an axe somewhat modified & reconfigured for use in battle. No more, no less.

The Chinese had a battle axe too:
Click the image to open in full size.

And so did the Egyptians:
Click the image to open in full size.

Now, just becos Chinese & Egyptians had & used battle axes that looked not too much different from those of Vikings & Indians, that does not mean that Chinese & Egyptians were also Indo-Europeans, or even Indo-Aryans.

Every culture on earth had an axe, and if they knew a bit of metalworking, plus had some battle experience among their people, then they cud easily hv made an axe for use in battle.

Last edited by Dreamhunter; December 26th, 2017 at 02:23 AM.
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Old December 26th, 2017, 02:28 AM   #29

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You realize that Indo-Aryans are not the progenitor of all Indo-European peoples and that they are only a branch of the general Indo-European group that, by the time of the Vikings, encompassed a wide variety of peoples throughout the world?
LOL. Just one phrase for you. Out of India (OIT) Theory. Some of these guys here are full of it. Filled to the utter brim with it. Absolutely soaked to the very core in it. You are thus forewarned.
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Old December 26th, 2017, 02:46 AM   #30

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Yes, the classification is Indo-Europeans dividing into Indo-Iranians, then further dividing into Indian Aryans for those who do not subscribe to 'Out of India' theory.
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