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Old December 26th, 2017, 02:08 AM   #31
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Originally Posted by Aatreya View Post
Then why do you claim the hypothetical language to be true? The reconstructed words do not conform to the corresponding root mentioned in Vedic (which is real), and so it has to be wrong. Whether you care about one word or not, it is not my problem either. All I know is that PIE fails in case of many such words.
Possibly then more laws have to be introduced to explain anomalies then. It still doesn't disprove the theory as a whole.

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By the way, Proto does not mean there should not have been attestation. All it means it is the basic template from which its descendant languages have derived.
No. Even if we assume that Sanskrit is the source of all IE, then PIE would be the souce of Sanskrit. So one stage of the evolution older.

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On the other hand, I have gone through the existing way of classification, and the whole list of Vedic words and the corresponding Avestan words (the Iranian branch language). What I feel is that the current theory that hypothesizes the root word for both Vedic and Avestan is wrong, and is not supported by the most ancient Vedic works. Further I have made observations that indicate Vedic was more ancient of the two, and the Avestan language did not share sibling relationship with Vedic.
So what's the proof that Sanskrit is older?

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If the relationship between Vedic and Avestan is wrong, what is the point in finding out if Vedic gave rise to Polish and English?
You said Vedic is the ancestor of all Indo-European languages. So, I asked for a proof. All the time you are spewing empty words with absolutely zero backing. I've been learning how English developed from Old English, Old Germanic, and PIE. There are strict regular rules which explain how Germanic diverged from other IE languages like Grimm's law. Those are facts and are easily observed by comparision of lexical items. By saying that Sanskrit is the ancestor you are invaliding more than a century of generally accepted IE studies, so the burden of proof fails on you. Yet still, you just avoid the topic.

Last edited by Vaderfan; December 26th, 2017 at 02:53 AM.
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Old December 26th, 2017, 02:30 AM   #32

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Originally Posted by Pulakesin View Post
Congrats on doing those things. I myself am interested in learning Indian swordplay but have no idea how to go about it aside from moving back to India .
You cud try looking around for a club teaching eastern martial arts, any martial art, in your area, where there are Indian instructors in it. They shud be able to show you a move or two. Experienced MA instructors, in my own experience, normally are pretty well versed in some bits about a few other styles besides their own core area. And if the guy is an Indian, I believe he wud know some Indian stuff, like kalari payattu, silambam etc., which do hv some weapon fighting elements, as wud any other MA, even if they might mostly teach only weaponless techniques in public.

Now, you might like these two vid clips:





Caution: Don't go messin about with a sharp blade on your own, without supervision by a competent instructor. It's dangerous. My own advice, learn some basic weaponless fighting first, to build up your competency in terms of balance, coordination etc., before you ever proceed to weapons.
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Old December 26th, 2017, 02:42 AM   #33

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Originally Posted by Aupmanyav View Post
Yes, the classification is Indo-Europeans dividing into Indo-Iranians, then further dividing into Indian Aryans for those who do not subscribe to 'Out of India' theory.
Yeah, one needs an escape clause at the end of what one says, with these guys.
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Old December 26th, 2017, 07:26 AM   #34
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Originally Posted by Vaderfan View Post
Possibly then more laws have to be introduced to explain anomalies then. It still doesn't disprove the theory as a whole.


No. Even if we assume that Sanskrit is the source of all IE, then PIE would be the souce of Sanskrit. So one stage of the evolution older.


So what's the proof that Sanskrit is older?


You said Vedic is the ancestor of all Indo-European languages. So, I asked for a proof. All the time you are spewing empty words with absolutely zero backing. I've been learning how English developed from Old English, Old Germanic, and PIE. There are strict regular rules which explain how Germanic diverged from other IE languages like Grimm's law. Those are facts and are easily observed by comparision of lexical items. By saying that Sanskrit is the ancestor you are invaliding more than a century of generally accepted IE studies, so the burden of proof fails on you. Yet still, you just avoid the topic.
I am not avoiding the topic at all. I told you I have to chart the map myself. But quite clearly I told you that in almost all the cases the reconstructed PIE is way off compared to the real root word.

The root of Ashwa is "ash" as is clearly established in the ancient Vedic works. There is no way that the root is "Eikwos" or some other word. If the reconstructed root is (as you see) is way off compared to the real root, then what should be the PIE? I am not only invalidating the accepted IE studies, I call it bogus.

Tell me, which language has any kind of linguistic laws (framework), and which of it is the oldest?
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Old December 26th, 2017, 07:34 AM   #35
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Originally Posted by Aupmanyav View Post
Yes, the classification is Indo-Europeans dividing into Indo-Iranians, then further dividing into Indian Aryans for those who do not subscribe to 'Out of India' theory.
You realize the stupidity of the Arctic theory that claims Rig Vedic hymns were composed in Arctic, when the branching had not even happened according to the PIE model, don't you?
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Old December 26th, 2017, 08:04 AM   #36
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Don't make the false idea of any "viking people" (from where? From "Vikingia"? but there never was such a people, or such a land).
There were then as now people living in the northern and western lands of Europe, and some, or a lot of those people once fought and plundered.
That does not made some viking "ethnicity".
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Old December 26th, 2017, 10:44 AM   #37

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Originally Posted by Pulakesin View Post
Well perhaps I should have phrased my question better : Does Norse show more similarity to Sanskrit than other IE languages. Also, I never denied they were IE. was only curious if there were other connections
No. Baltic and Slavic languages even today have more similarities to Sanskrit than Germanic languages.

A lot was said about Veda and it's meaning. Perhaps some of you will find it interesting, in Slovene "veda" means science and knowledge (verb "vedeti" = to know).

Lithuanian (iirc) is very archaic and thus should show a lot of similarities with Sanskrit. Slovene is one of two Slavic languages (the other is Sorbian) that still have the dual grammatical number, like Sanskrit.
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Old December 26th, 2017, 11:45 AM   #38
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Originally Posted by Aupmanyav View Post
I find 30 references to 'Norse' in Tilak's 'Arctic Home in Vedas'. Need some time to study them before reporting here. (See below)Check with Sikhs or Keralites if someone has a training center around where you live - or join Specul8's school.Perhaps the East Asian swords are delicate. A few rings will not matter to my grandfathers hefty sword.
Your grandfather's sword ? Is it a traditional Viking Vedic sword ?


( My brother in law was knighted {by old King of Spain } the sword he got then is pathetic, thinner than my little finger , would break from yelling at it .
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Old December 26th, 2017, 11:58 AM   #39
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Originally Posted by Dreamhunter View Post
You cud try looking around for a club teaching eastern martial arts, any martial art, in your area, where there are Indian instructors in it. They shud be able to show you a move or two. Experienced MA instructors, in my own experience, normally are pretty well versed in some bits about a few other styles besides their own core area. And if the guy is an Indian, I believe he wud know some Indian stuff, like kalari payattu, silambam etc., which do hv some weapon fighting elements, as wud any other MA, even if they might mostly teach only weaponless techniques in public.

Now, you might like these two vid clips:




HEY ! Are those Vedic Vikings she is fighting ?

Quote:
Originally Posted by Dreamhunter View Post

Caution: Don't go messin about with a sharp blade on your own, without supervision by a competent instructor. It's dangerous. My own advice, learn some basic weaponless fighting first, to build up your competency in terms of balance, coordination etc., before you ever proceed to weapons.
And also, dont go weaponless fighting before you build up your competency in internet forum debate... in terms of balance, proof, evidence, answering the questions put to you ......

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Old December 26th, 2017, 12:00 PM   #40
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Originally Posted by Aatreya View Post
I am not avoiding the topic at all. I told you I have to chart the map myself. But quite clearly I told you that in almost all the cases the reconstructed PIE is way off compared to the real root word.

The root of Ashwa is "ash" as is clearly established in the ancient Vedic works. There is no way that the root is "Eikwos" or some other word. If the reconstructed root is (as you see) is way off compared to the real root, then what should be the PIE? I am not only invalidating the accepted IE studies, I call it bogus.

Tell me, which language has any kind of linguistic laws (framework), and which of it is the oldest?
See ... you dont answer the questions ;

demonstrate that Sanskrit is older than Avestan .
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