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Old December 26th, 2017, 02:21 PM   #41
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Originally Posted by Aatreya View Post
I am not avoiding the topic at all. I told you I have to chart the map myself. But quite clearly I told you that in almost all the cases the reconstructed PIE is way off compared to the real root word.
The problem is that you start from the assumption that Sanskrit is the true oldest ancestor of IE languages. That's why you find reconstructoion faulty.

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Tell me, which language has any kind of linguistic laws (framework), and which of it is the oldest?
Every single IE language has linguistic laws defined which describe its evolution since PIE. It's not that people made up PIE and made up laws to make it fit the modern language. It's the other way around, with modern languages first being reconstructed to their ancient versions through historical evidence, internal and external reconstruction, only then, on the basis of recovered proto languages, was PIE reconstructed. About which one is the oldest, probably the Anatolian branch with Hittite, followedby Sanskrit, which cannot ve reliably dated because Vedas were written down centuries or millennia after events they describe, and jntil then they could have underwent multiple changes and revisions.
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Old December 26th, 2017, 04:04 PM   #42

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Originally Posted by specul8 View Post
HEY ! Are those Vedic Vikings she is fighting ?
In the first vid, our Kerala heroine Mira is sparring with a Roman commander whom she is helping, to get a young Romulus (not the one of first legend, but another one - son of the last Roman emperor - who is later going to adopt the name Pendragon, and guess what, become Arthur's father).

In the second, she is fighting a bunch of traitorous Goths, henchmen of Odoacer the Goth, who has wrested Western Rome & is now trying to assassinate Romulus.

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And also, dont go weaponless fighting before you build up your competency in internet forum debate... in terms of balance, proof, evidence, answering the questions put to you ......
We hv a saying in Malay, which goes, 'He who eats the chilli, he will feel the burn.'

Last edited by Dreamhunter; December 26th, 2017 at 04:11 PM.
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Old December 26th, 2017, 05:30 PM   #43
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Originally Posted by Ailas View Post
Here comes Atriya with his drividian "Aryans" with Sanskrit and destroys another topic with his dusted theory of OOI which jave no connection with Origin of Sanskrit, Polish and veda.
Well at least he is educated and knows something. And he has no wannabe related goras syndrome that some people have. And if North Indians are aryans than so are South Indians. North and South Indians are one people. They share more similarities than northern and southern Chinese.
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Old December 26th, 2017, 05:46 PM   #44

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^
With all due respect, I wud say, the PC thing to say, as well as the pro-nation building thing to say, is, yep, they are 'one people'. But the honest, historical thing? Likely not. We in fact hv many 'Indian' ethnicities in Malaysia, ranging from Punjabi, Gujarati, Bengali, eastern North Indian, to Malayalee, Kerala & Tamil. And they certainly do not seem to think & behave as they are really 'one people', considering that they are all of 'Indian' descent. Indeed, a Punjabi in Malaysia wud quite often be saying, 'I'm not an 'Indian', I'm a Punjabi', when what he actually means is, 'I'm not a Dravidian/Tamil, I'm a Punjabi'.

Even for a small nation like ours, the Malay people, we know that our ancient ancestors were originally not so called 'one people', but rather several tribes, of quite different stock, who only after a rather long time eventually became 'one people'.

Let alone a nation as vast as the 'Indian' nation, or the equally vast 'Chinese' nation. It wud be almost like saying that the entire Asia is 'one people'.

It's not that simplistic. With all due respect again, saying something like, 'If North Indians were Arya, then Dravidics were also Arya' wud to me be not that much different from saying, 'If Anatolian Turks are now more or less Anatolian, then CA Turks are now also more or less Anatolian'. I'm not into being divisive or anything like that, but just preferring to more closely ally with what I happen to believe is the historical truth.

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Old December 26th, 2017, 05:56 PM   #45
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Originally Posted by Pulakesin View Post
"“Edda” means “grandmother,” and scholars have been unable to explain why the works bear that name. While many suggestions have been offered, the simplest has been all but overlooked: that the Eddic composer Snorri was simply invoking his wise grandmother, who may have told him the tales he transcribed. “Edda” itself may be derived from the Sanskrit veda, or sacred vidyä, both of which are terms for “knowledge;” cognates include the German wissen, the Swedish veta, and the old English wit, for “to know” (Titchenell, p. 20). Therefore it is fitting that a grandmother should convey knowledge. Together the Eddas and Vedas represent bookends on the shelf of European religious history; the further apart they are set, the more knowledge can be placed in between. "

LW HASTEN - Eddas and Vedas

of course, now people will say it is PIE connection, but the name of the PIE connection seems to be "Veda" in this case

The Eddas are basically heroic folk myths. upon deeper study, one can obviously see the connection between Thor and indra for example. the link IMO is very interesting
LOL,

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Originally Posted by Introduction to Bellows, The Poetic Eddas
But what does the word "Edda" mean? Various guesses have been made. An early assumption was that the word somehow meant "Poetics," which fitted Snorri's treatise to a nicety, but which, in addition to the lack of philological evidence to support this interpretation, could by no stretch of scholarly subtlety be made appropriate to the collection of poems. Jacob Grimm ingeniously identified the word with the word "edda" used in one of the poems, the Rigsthula, where, rather conjecturally, it means "great-grand mother." The word exists in this sense no where else in Norse literature, and Grimm's suggestion of "Tales of a Grandmother," though at one time it found wide acceptance, was grotesquely. inappropriate to either the prose or the verse work.
At last Eirikr Magnusson hit on what appears the likeliest solution of the puzzle: that "Edda" is simply the genitive form of the proper name "Oddi." Oddi was a settlement in the southwest of Iceland, certainly the home of Snorri Sturluson for many years, and, traditionally at least, also the home of Sæmund the Wise. That Snorri's work should have been called "The Book of Oddi" is altogether reasonable, for such a method of naming books was common--witness the "Book of the Flat Island" and other early manuscripts. That Sæmund may also have written or compiled another "Oddi-Book" is perfectly possible, and that tradition should have said he did so is entirely natural.

Read them here The Poetic Edda: Contents


Your theory of what "eddas" meant was outdated in 1936!
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Old December 26th, 2017, 06:04 PM   #46

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The word 'thunder' is actually pretty close to the name 'Indra', especially if one takes out the 't' from 'thunder'.
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Old December 26th, 2017, 06:18 PM   #47
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Originally Posted by specul8 View Post
See ... you dont answer the questions ;

demonstrate that Sanskrit is older than Avestan .
How many times shall I type it up again? I already wrote quite a few posts in the "Aryan Invasion" thread. Let me did the thread up and post them here again.
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Old December 26th, 2017, 06:20 PM   #48
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Originally Posted by Ailas View Post
Here comes Atriya with his drividian "Aryans" with Sanskrit and destroys another topic with his dusted theory of OOI which jave no connection with Origin of Sanskrit, Polish and veda.
Oh oh... It is Atreya (or Aatreya), meaning descendant of atri, and it is DrAvida. First learn to spell the words properly. Then try dusting the OOI theory.
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Old December 26th, 2017, 06:21 PM   #49
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Originally Posted by songtsen View Post
Well at least he is educated and knows something. And he has no wannabe related goras syndrome that some people have. And if North Indians are aryans than so are South Indians. North and South Indians are one people. They share more similarities than northern and southern Chinese.
Thank you for displaying courtesy my friend, and thanks for making a very sensible statement.
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Old December 26th, 2017, 06:43 PM   #50
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Originally Posted by Pulakesin View Post
I for one believe that the indo aryans are the originators of IE.

Tell me good sir, do you lot finally have any evidence for PIE existing? Lol. Also, didn't the R haplogroup originate in India? I think this haplogroup is found all over Europe

And by the way, thank you for the detailed response. However, the connection between Norse and Vedic seems more deep as Celtics do not have an "Edda" that is so close to "Veda"
Haplogroups R1a and R1b originated in Siberia near lake Baikal 18,000-24,000 years ago so did not originate in India or Spain as the Basque Mr. Chekovs claim.

The Sintashta Culture: first domesticated the horse; invented the chariot; used copper or bronze hatchets as weapons; lived in circular cities.
They are the original Aryans most likely. Chariot Racers of the Steppes | DiscoverMagazine.com

Their culture was 1,000 years older than the Rig Veda.

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