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Old December 25th, 2017, 11:28 AM   #1
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Vikings and Aryas


Hello

How did the Vikings come to acquire an Indo European cultural heritage? Is there any direct connection between the Vikings and Indo Aryans? I ask because of the sacred Viking Edda being quite similar to the Aryan Veda, in that they are both primarily poetic texts passed down by anonymous seers.

Also, the battle axe is common to both cultures as a weapon of prestige.

Hindu Battle Axe:

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Norse Battle Axe:

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Last edited by Pulakesin; December 25th, 2017 at 12:00 PM.
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Old December 25th, 2017, 12:28 PM   #2
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Vikings were Germanic, so Indo-European. They didn't need any additional contact with Aryans. The state education in USA must be at a terrific level...
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Old December 25th, 2017, 12:35 PM   #3
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Vikings were Germanic, so Indo-European. They didn't need any additional contact with Aryans. The state education in USA must be at a terrific level...
answer the question without acting smart. usa is miles ahead of whatever hole your commenting from and I wasn't even educated here lol
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Old December 25th, 2017, 12:37 PM   #4
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answer the question without acting smart. usa is miles ahead of whatever hole your commenting from and I wasn't even educated here lol
I did answer. How could Vikings acquire Indo-European cultural heritage when they were born from it?
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Old December 25th, 2017, 12:40 PM   #5

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Originally Posted by Pulakesin View Post
Hello

How did the Vikings come to acquire an Indo European cultural heritage? Is there any direct connection between the Vikings and Indo Aryans? I ask because of the sacred Viking Edda being quite similar to the Aryan Veda, in that they are both primarily poetic texts passed down by anonymous seers.

Also, the battle axe is common to both cultures as a weapon of prestige.
You realize that Indo-Aryans are not the progenitor of all Indo-European peoples and that they are only a branch of the general Indo-European group that, by the time of the Vikings, encompassed a wide variety of peoples throughout the world?

If you know this, then why is it a surprise that there are some parallels between these disparate cultures when the Vikings themselves were Indo-European people and were surrounded by numerous other Indo-European peoples? The Vikings themselves are not unique in this aspect. You will find such parallels with the Greeks, Romans, and even the numerous tribes that populated Europe (like the Celts). Naturally, Indo-European characteristics will propagate throughout history to different peoples without needing any one Indo-European group to have contact with another.
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Old December 25th, 2017, 12:45 PM   #6
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You realize that Indo-Aryans are not the progenitor of all Indo-European peoples and that they are only a branch of the general Indo-European group that, by the time of the Vikings, encompassed a wide variety of peoples throughout the world?

If you know this, then why is it a surprise that there are some parallels between these disparate cultures when the Vikings themselves were Indo-European people and were surrounded by numerous other Indo-European peoples? The Vikings themselves are not unique in this aspect. You will find such parallels with the Greeks, Romans, and even the numerous tribes that populated Europe (like the Celts). Naturally, Indo-European characteristics will propagate throughout history to different peoples without needing any one Indo-European group to have contact with another.
I for one believe that the indo aryans are the originators of IE.

Tell me good sir, do you lot finally have any evidence for PIE existing? Lol. Also, didn't the R haplogroup originate in India? I think this haplogroup is found all over Europe

And by the way, thank you for the detailed response. However, the connection between Norse and Vedic seems more deep as Celtics do not have an "Edda" that is so close to "Veda"
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Old December 25th, 2017, 12:56 PM   #7
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Tell me good sir, do you lot finally have any evidence for PIE existing?
PIE is a language from whuch all all Indo-Europeans evolved. As long as we assume that German and Hindi are related, then PIE had to exist as a stage predating the divergence of German and Hindi.

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between Norse and Vedic seems more deep as Celtics do not have an "Edda" that is so close to "Veda"
How close Edda and Veda actually are? I'd read only the former so it would be interesting if Veda told the same stories as Edda does.
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Old December 25th, 2017, 02:18 PM   #8
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PIE is a language from whuch all all Indo-Europeans evolved. As long as we assume that German and Hindi are related, then PIE had to exist as a stage predating the divergence of German and Hindi.



How close Edda and Veda actually are? I'd read only the former so it would be interesting if Veda told the same stories as Edda does.
No, PIE is Vedic, not the reconstructed one.

Veda is not about stories. Veda has its root in "vid" meaning "to know". Yes, it will be interesting to know what are the themes of Edda.
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Old December 25th, 2017, 02:26 PM   #9
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I for one believe that the indo aryans are the originators of IE.

Tell me good sir, do you lot finally have any evidence for PIE existing? Lol. Also, didn't the R haplogroup originate in India? I think this haplogroup is found all over Europe

And by the way, thank you for the detailed response. However, the connection between Norse and Vedic seems more deep as Celtics do not have an "Edda" that is so close to "Veda"
Yes it seems to be an interesting connection. What is the theme of Edda?
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Old December 25th, 2017, 02:27 PM   #10

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I for one believe that the indo aryans are the originators of IE.

Tell me good sir, do you lot finally have any evidence for PIE existing?
No, but we also can't show the independent existence of mathematical logic, algorithms, algebraic structures, analysis, and all other mathematical formalisms and structures that factor into the practice of linguistics so I suppose all linguistics and math is a lie and we should give it all up because we can never directly prove these abstractions exist in the real world.

And hey, why stop there? We can't directly prove the existence of 4 dimensional pseduo-Riemannian manifolds or the standard model Lagrangian so general relativity and quantum field theory are gone. Hell, we can never show that Newton's 1st law is true because we can never concoct and observe a scenario where we have no net forces acting on a system and have indefinite rectilinear motion, so Newtonian mechanics is dead. Come to think of it, even evolution can be eliminated because we can never directly observe populations of species evolving over millions of years.

Man, we're doing great work here eliminating entire mathematical and scientific models on the criterion of having to empirically verify every little aspect of them, aren't we?

Quote:
Lol. Also, didn't the R haplogroup originate in India? I think this haplogroup is found all over Europe
As much as I would like to discuss this, forum rules are to not discuss genetics. I don't make the forum rules but I am just letting you know.

Quote:
And by the way, thank you for the detailed response. However, the connection between Norse and Vedic seems more deep as Celtics do not have an "Edda" that is so close to "Veda"
So other than free word association, do you have any reason to postulate a "deep" connection between the two?
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