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Old March 7th, 2012, 03:23 PM   #131

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Originally Posted by Rosi View Post
That wasn't me.

I may have said that I had been taught that the Dravidians were from Sumer.
Ok sorry Rosi , taking your name in vain,

anyway forget the Lemuria bit , it does not matter when they first migrated to sumer , the point i am making is , if the Arian invasion was a return of people that had previously left, then because the have the same DNA on coming home , they will not show up in a later DNA search.
But that does not necessarily mean that the so called Aryan invasion did not happen .
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Old March 7th, 2012, 07:51 PM   #132

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Originally Posted by ib-issi View Post
When talking about Dravidians and Aryans would it not be unsurprising that there is no DNA evidence of an invasion of Aryans ,

I think it was Rosi that said she was always taught that the original exodus of either dravids or tamils was to the sumerian region very early on, maybe as early as when this area some are calling Lemuria , or the low lying land between sri Lanka and india became innundated ,

These people multiplied in Sumeria , and hence the spread of indo-European language , and writtings like the Avesta etc, it has been stated often that the sumerian and indian/tamil lnguages are very similar ,

If then because of war , or famine these Sumerian or persians came back at the time of what is called the Aryan invasion , then it would just be a return of the original DNA that left in the first place , and so when scientists look now it is going to look like there was not a huge inflow of Aryans ,

But again Rosi stated earlier the Aryans were just a Linguistic group not a racial group , .. so it was just the original inhabitants coming home who are all the same as far as DNA goes with those who never left, and just differences where the language , and names of gods etc had evolved during the seperation .???
This theory is valid if and only if we can find a link between proto-semetic and proto Indo-European languages. For then, we could argue that such a scenario ( of humans leaving India only to return millenias later) is valid- however, since so far we know that Sumerians spoke a semetic language and semetic is significantly different than Indo-European languages, the chances of the ancestors of either population being ultimately from the same ethnic base, is highly remote.
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Old March 8th, 2012, 12:41 AM   #133

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Very True LoG , ..............The more i try to teach myself some of these transcripted words though the more i think i can see similarities ,take the word Unmai mentioned earlier as what he is saying is the word for the 1st language ,

Tholkaapiam....tholka..ap..iam i often find p = f as in ph.and we all know that vowels can change from spoken to written
could that say the talk , or language of iam, ie the god IAM ?? or maybe just iam as in my language ?

The other sentence he posted.

Asathoma Sath Ghamaya..................Asath and Sath , being the same as our use of putting A first ie as in Theist and Atheist. Asath..oma..Sath..Gham..aya
From not sayeth to sayeth Came me/i

Thamasoma Jyothir Ghamaya....? from Darkness/ignorance to the other or opposite
came me/i

Mruthyoma Amrutham Ghamaya ? from death to non death came me/i , or maybe from his wrath , to not his wrath came me/i

you can possibly read bits of it from english .i am thinking at this early stage of learning, english came from the indian area .???

Last edited by ib-issi; March 8th, 2012 at 12:55 AM.
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Old March 10th, 2012, 06:13 PM   #134
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Hi Sudarsan,

Where are you, have you seen my mail that I replied?
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Old March 12th, 2012, 03:13 AM   #135
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Originally Posted by 1991sudarshan View Post
I am kinda armchair expert in linguistic theory. What you cite is the super stratum relation i.e vocabulary , that is not a solid proof. The thing you require to prove is sub stratum i.e grammatical relationship between two languages. So i can even tell Chinese words are present English that doesn't mean the Chinese the mother of all languages.

Understand clearly, the thing that is required to prove that there exists relationship is to prove the similarities between the substratum of two languages (i.e grammar) and then we go to super stratum ie vocabulary

Ex -----Hungarian which has words that are similar in German Romanian polish but the fact is Hungarian Grammar is very different from the germanic languages and it is in a separate language group called Uralic

"Tamil is the first language" ,if you believe that firmly first prove the grammatical relation between Chinese and Tamil first and then you talk about Tamil words in Chinese language.

Do not post off topic replies Please.

I'm reading a book by Abraham Eraly "The Jewel in Lotus". The early sections describes the Indus Valley Civilization. It is mentioned there that this civilization was urban centric, and based on more utilitarian concepts. The script has not been deciphered. The facial features of the people as seen from the engravings show negroid type of people. Eraly contends that Shiva is depicted in their engravings as an angry god and even suggests yoga originated from Indus Valley Civilisation. He also discusses the attack by Aryans.
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