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Old August 23rd, 2017, 06:05 PM   #1
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Do you think European imperialists were any more racist than previous rulers?

Or did they simply have better technology?

Were the Egyptians, Assyrians, Persians, Greeks, Romans, Chinese, Arabs, Mongols, Ottomans just as racist?
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Old August 23rd, 2017, 06:07 PM   #2

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Greeks and Romans not European?
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Old August 23rd, 2017, 06:45 PM   #3
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Definitely not more than the Ottomans. Think Barbary Slave Trade.
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Old August 24th, 2017, 05:19 AM   #4
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Originally Posted by Edric Streona View Post
Greeks and Romans not European?
I think the OP is contrasting the Europeans beginning c. 1500 or or so with previous colonials, wherever they might have been.
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Old August 24th, 2017, 05:39 AM   #5

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There is a presumption that they were racists in the modern sense. Back in those days the word had not even been invented.

It should be recognized that many of those in positions of power in Europe treated their own indigenous populations as little more than slaves. Even in countries that did not have bonded laborers or serfs, the supposedly free citizens were just common scum to the aristocracy. Before bemoaning the fate of far off peoples, a closer look at home is needed first to put the entire thing into context. In Britain into the second half of the 19th Century, children were still being sent down the mines, or doing extremely dangerous jobs, for almost no wage, and being hung. Into my childhood, beatings by state appointed sadists, teachers I think they were meant to be, were common, and while old photos of slaves with whip marks are shown to illustrate slavery, they were not the only people with marks, and that is up to very recent times, not the mid 19th century.
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Old August 24th, 2017, 06:13 AM   #6
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European and non-European racist imperialists were on the same page when it came to denying racially "inferior" men access to racially "superior" women - the difference was how often they resorted to castration.

European and non-European racist imperialists were on the same page when it came to ravishing racially "inferior" women - the difference was whether they were openly polygynous.
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Old August 25th, 2017, 10:36 PM   #7

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Can't we have a forum rule banning this application of 20th and 21st century terms and concepts to periods where such standards didn't apply?
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Old August 26th, 2017, 04:54 AM   #8
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They weren't racists at all.
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Old August 26th, 2017, 04:22 PM   #9
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Originally Posted by Edric Streona View Post
Greeks and Romans not European?
In someway, greeks and romans can be related more with the annatolian and middle eastern civilizations than the western europe peoples. Looking their mithology, romans used to identify themselves with Eneas, as participants in the war of Troy. Also, Greeks laid the fundations of "Europe" in the middle east ,talking about "Europe" as a Syrian princess kidnnaped by Zeus.
Furthermore, Christianity and Modern Capitalism played a main role in the stablishment of Europe as political and cultural concept. That distinguish the european explorations of XV century of the Vikings settlement in north atlantic islands.
Of course, thats only my own opinnion as bad english speaker student XD. Reggards and have a nice day.
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Old August 28th, 2017, 12:49 PM   #10

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The Mongols only wanted power. they tolerated those who accepted their power, and demolished those who didn't.

I think many empires were racially stratified, though the Romans did allow people to practice their own culture to some extent. It was only in the Late Western Empire that non-Italians gained high positions. Only ethnic Latins from Italia in Augustus's time had the true power in the Empire, or the Republic.
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