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Old September 12th, 2017, 09:49 AM   #1

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Why do we?


Okay this question was prompted by a discussion we were having in another thread. When we talk of Alexander's invasion of the sub-continent we frame it as "India". This does not quite convey the truth. Alexander only conquered a tract of land along the Indus River in the extreme north west corner of the sub-continent. By saying "Alexander conquered India" we give the false impression that he either conquered all of India or major portion of India. That is not quite accurate reflection of what happened.

To place this in context do we say Arabs conquered Europe? Or do we say Arabs conquered Iberia? Please look at the maps below to see what I mean.


(i) Arabs conquered Europe?
(ii) Arabs conquerd Iberia?
(iii) Arabs conquered Iberia plus sliver of Gaul?



Click the image to open in full size.



(i) Alexander conquered India?
(ii) Alexander conquered Indus region?
(iii) Alexander conquered Indus region plus a sliver.



Click the image to open in full size.



Thoughts?
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Old September 12th, 2017, 10:12 AM   #2

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Obv. speaking from personal experience here but I have never heard anyone claim that he conquered india. I thought it was always framed as he "conquered all the way TO india" or that he "reached india" or that "his empire stretched from egypt and macedon to india". Never that he actually "conquered india".
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Old September 12th, 2017, 10:15 AM   #3

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^ Same here.
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Old September 12th, 2017, 10:27 AM   #4
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The Greeks after alexander did venture as far as Pataliputra if i am not wrong. Greeks did influence the clothing, sculpture and architecture of ancient India. Maybe these later Greek influences are assumed to have been initiated by alexanders tiny little foray into the indian subcontinent.
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Old September 12th, 2017, 10:35 AM   #5

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You should have chosen a better title than: "why do we?".
Quote:
Originally Posted by Kvasir View Post
Obv. speaking from personal experience here but I have never heard anyone claim that he conquered india. I thought it was always framed as he "conquered all the way TO india" or that he "reached india" or that "his empire stretched from egypt and macedon to india". Never that he actually "conquered india".
Quote:
Originally Posted by Jax View Post
^ Same here.
Same here.

Also, didn't the Maurya Empire start its existence about a year before Alexander died?
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Old September 12th, 2017, 10:47 AM   #6
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It's clear that India is exonym. Achaemenids used to call people that lived near indus river hindu. Greeks took the word and named them indoi and the land india. Apparently for ancient greko-roman world /incl. those who wrote the ancient biographies of alexander/ india was connected with indus river, what is present day Pakistan. For ionian greeks centuries before macedonians for example asia was merely the coastline of lydia, ionia and caria, later asia minor, anatolia /anadola/. The phoenician princess name, i dont even want to start with this term. During the times of alexander civilized greeks knew only southern part of balkan peninsula, southern italia, sicily and iberia. Mainly the coastlines.

EDIT: Short answer for greko-roman world: india = indus river region

Last edited by At Each Kilometer; September 12th, 2017 at 11:15 AM.
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Old September 12th, 2017, 11:03 AM   #7

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In Italy we don't say that Alexander conquered India and we don't say that Arabs conquered Europe.

In which countries have they got such an amusing educational system to sustain similar historical misinterpretations?
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Old September 12th, 2017, 11:13 AM   #8

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Quote:
Originally Posted by Bullit View Post
By saying "Alexander conquered India" we give the false impression that he either conquered all of India or major portion of India.
I will join others saying that I don’t recall seeing that written in a serious book or site.

Have you samples that a kind of sentence equal or similar to that is being written recently in a serious history book or site?

I will exclude here Ancient and even Medieval sources, since those sources didn’t had the same idea of India that we have in the last 500 years and thus we fall into what At Each Kilometer’s wrote in a previous post.
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Old September 12th, 2017, 11:23 AM   #9

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Quote:
Originally Posted by Offspring View Post
You should have chosen a better title than: "why do we?".
Agreed. However this was quick prompt to a discussion in another thread Aryan Migration Theory update which had this youtube link. So apologies for the poor framing of the thread title.



Btw Alexander never ventured much further than the Indus River. At his maximum extent from the Indus [where Greeks refused to move anymore east which funny enough is proximate to the present Indo-Pak border] was about 100 miles. Most of the time he stayed with a narrow Indus belt all the way south to the Arabian Sea.
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Old September 12th, 2017, 11:46 AM   #10

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Quote:
Originally Posted by Kvasir View Post
Obv. speaking from personal experience here but I have never heard anyone claim that he conquered india. I thought it was always framed as he "conquered all the way TO india" or that he "reached india" or that "his empire stretched from egypt and macedon to india". Never that he actually "conquered india".
Hear hear.
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