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Old April 1st, 2013, 11:19 AM   #1

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Is this a accurate linguistic map of Europe 6th century


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Old April 6th, 2013, 04:15 PM   #2
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I'm not really any kind of expert but, from my limited knowledge, I believe the area of the Baltic coast east of the Jutland Peninsula should be Slavic speaking, should it not?

EDIT: And wouldn't 'British' be a Romance language?
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Old April 6th, 2013, 04:16 PM   #3

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I think the verdict is still out on whether Pictish was a Celtic language or not; otherwise, it seems very accurate to my amateur eyes
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Old April 6th, 2013, 05:05 PM   #4

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No, it isn't. It's too big and too vague and the evidence it's based on will usually be anything but linguistic evidence (beause in largely illiterate societies there would be hardly any...)

Two things that made me dismiss the map instantly were the Franks and Frisians. The Frisians were a coastal people. Around the 6th century ad they'd be found from the coastal regions of Belgium- Northern France (the coastline was different back then, dotted with small islands) all the way up to the west coast of modern day Denmark. Their core territories were (and still are) the coastal regions of northern Netherlands, west Germany and west Denmark.
Frankish is supposedly spoken also where it says "Frisian" on the map. But supposedly as well further down south, north and east. "Supposedly" because the evidence consists of typical Frankish cemetaries. But the Franks north of the Rhine used to cremate their dead still in the time of Clovis and those cemetaries are found as far down south as Paris... Not to say a majority there spoke a germanic language, but a clear picture seems impossible, in any case rather than a clear line, think of pockets and enclaves or exclaves etc. ...

...
Anyway, there have to be better maps out there. I'd look for more maps, and more regional maps.

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Old April 6th, 2013, 05:09 PM   #5

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I noticed the map gives an 'Alemannian' designation - I've never heard of the Alamanni having their own distinct language.
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Old April 6th, 2013, 05:10 PM   #6

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I'm not totally clear on your colour scheme, but the Syria, the Palestines, and Mesopotamia were definitely not under a Turkish language. Syriac/Aramaic was widely spoken in the countryside and in liturgical circles in Syria and northern Mesopotamia, while Greek remained important in the cities. Aramaic is a Semitic language, not a Turkish one.

I also wonder if we might not see some Ge'ez on the very bottom of the map.
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Old April 6th, 2013, 08:16 PM   #7
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Quote:
I'm not really any kind of expert but, from my limited knowledge, I believe the area of the Baltic coast east of the Jutland Peninsula should be Slavic speaking, should it not?
No.

This map purports to show the situation in the 6th Century CE. At that time Slavic-speaking peoples had not yet penetrated to the west of the Oder River. The area west of the Oder river, and even in some places to the east of it, was still inhabited by Germanic-speaking peoples. In fact, at the beginning of the Common Era Germanic peoples had lived as far east as the mouth of the Vistula, but many of them migrated away to the south and west.

At the beginning of the 6th Century, the strongest state in the area between the Elbe and Oder was the kingdom of the Thuringians, a Germanic people; the existence of that strong state prevented the westward expansion of the Slavic peoples.

In the middle of the 6th Century, the Thuringian kingdom was destroyed by another Germanic people, the Franks. The disappearance of that state allowed Slavic peoples to move westward, eventually reaching the Elbe and even beyond it. Thus by the 8th Century the entire Baltic coast as far west as modern Lubeck was settled by Slavic peoples, the so-called Wendish Coast.
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Old April 6th, 2013, 11:26 PM   #8

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Scotland looks very off, I'm no expert but I always learnt that in the SW and NE they would be speaking Brythonic, in the NW Goidelic and the SE Scottish.

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Old April 7th, 2013, 09:10 AM   #9

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No, it isn't,
The gothic people were in the VIth century way gone from Dacia (westgothen in Spain and eastgothen in Italy), also the slavic people were south of the Danube, and the romanic population was in that time, till today, the most of the population. And turkish population on the N-W of the Black Sea? In the VIth century? I doubt that!
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Old April 7th, 2013, 09:30 AM   #10
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During the dark ages the linguistic map would have changed dramatically over any 20 year period....much less over a century.

that whole era was one of massive ethnic displacements, dispersions, and territorial disputes.
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