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Old May 8th, 2013, 08:37 PM   #221

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Originally Posted by falcon View Post
Kirialax, is there any doubt that Heracleios made Greek the official language of the empire, since not only by his time but even before him Latin had become very anachronistic for all intents and purposes.
Even Justinian at the Nica rebellion had to address the people in the hipodrome in Greek in order to be understood.

See Paparrigopoulos- 9th volume, chapter 3.
Latin was anachronistic from before that. Although Theodosius II's government worked in Latin, everything they produced for consumption had to be translated into Greek, see F. Millar, A Greek Roman Empire: Power and Belief Under Theodosius II, pp. 84-97. Law was still in Latin but we see Justinian give up on this in the 530s and start issuing novellae in Greek. The doubt arises regarding Herakleios in that I do not see any evidence for him changing the language at all. An official change of language would be enacted through a proclamation or a law, but not only do we not have that, we do not have any evidence that such a thing ever existed. Historians like tidy answers and sweeping changes where they can begin and end periods, but it's rarely that neat.
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Old May 8th, 2013, 09:09 PM   #222

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Originally Posted by Kirialax View Post
Historians like tidy answers and sweeping changes where they can begin and end periods, but it's rarely that neat.
I find that there is often misunderstanding regarding what it was to be a 'Roman'. This is where many stumble in this seemingly endless debate.

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Old May 8th, 2013, 10:30 PM   #223

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Originally Posted by falcon View Post
Black Knight look, I know many people from Arab countries, from Iran (Persia), and from Turkey; when I ask them specifically:
""Was the Byzantine empire Greek or Roman?""
They all answer it was ""Greek"".
They all have read in their history books their dealings with the Byzantines, and they all have concluded to this simple and obvious realization. I don't think they can all be wrong!
It's only in this forum that I encounter this opposition to this simple fact, that I besides my Middle Eastern friends, knew all along to be and hold true.

I will not come back to this subject, after all I never assumed the responsibility to straighten people's minds up. Many well knowledgable historumites in the past who were in agreement with me, have stopped bothering with it any more.
Mea culpa.
Well, so far you've given us no direct examples of how Constantinople of the 1100's was not the same Government as that in the 400's, and dodged every example i've thrown at you, as I try to show you how complicated this subject is. There's a reason the word "Byzantine" has connotations to the word "complex", you know.

And one more thing. Are you still saying that even after all i've shown you, you still believe there to be a seperate Greek and Roman identity in late Antiquity? I want to give the "Romani/Romaioi example, but This is silly. I've provided at least 9 different examples. Might as well make a documentary!
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Old January 2nd, 2018, 06:02 AM   #224
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Originally Posted by Corbulo View Post
Ultimatley ending with the final defence of Constantinople by the noble Constantine XI, with the aid of characters like the Geonese crusader, adventurer and pirate "Giovanni De Longo" fighting to the last on those ancient walls. There is even a probable "Scotsman"? involved in this last act .............."Johannes Grant" Engineer and siege expert (Perhaps the original "Mr Scott" lol)
Its one of these "facts" that start as a rumour or thought and then get a life of their own...

Runciman speculates in a footnote in his book on the Siege that Grant MAY be a Scot. All other references to him being Scot come from that one speculation, with no other evidence ever showing up. The two contemporary chronists of that battle, who were at Constantinople, both specifically name Johannes Grant as a German.
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