 | Medieval and Byzantine History Medieval and Byzantine History Forum - Period of History between classical antiquity and modern times, roughly the 5th through 16th Centuries |
February 4th, 2014, 05:15 PM
|
#1 | VIVE L' EMPEREUR
Joined: Dec 2012 From: The People's Republik of Kalifornia. Posts: 8,539 | Which English Kings actually spoke English?
I'm under the impression Richard I couldn't speak English. He spoke Norman French, correct? When did that change? I think Simon Schama wrote that Edward Longshanks was the first English king who could actually speak English, is that true? Did other rulers come along that couldn't speak English? What did they speak?
| |
| |
February 4th, 2014, 11:12 PM
|
#2 | Lecturer
Joined: Dec 2012 Posts: 345 |
i'm pretty sure i read that Henry II could speak English - probably of the schoolboy/tourist variety, but still. i think the same could be said for John - the reason Richard I couldn't speak English was that he barely lived here...
i think the problem you're going to find with such a yes/no question is one of degree - certainly uptil the 15th century the langauge of court, parliament and the justice system was French/Norman-French, so the written history that remains is going to be in those languages, and isn't going to be interested in whether the King could converse with his soldiery. i think it very unlikely however that, apart from Richard II - for the reason given - the Plantaganets could speak or understand no English at all, not lest because this would make personal direction in battle (which is what Kingship of the time is all about) virtually impossible.
|
Last edited by Dried Fruit; February 4th, 2014 at 11:22 PM.
|
| |
February 5th, 2014, 01:21 AM
|
#3 | Historian
Joined: Dec 2011 Posts: 2,486 | Quote:
Originally Posted by Menshevik I'm under the impression Richard I couldn't speak English. He spoke Norman French, correct? When did that change? I think Simon Schama wrote that Edward Longshanks was the first English king who could actually speak English, is that true? Did other rulers come along that couldn't speak English? What did they speak? | Richard was an Angevin and appears to have spoken the l[ame="http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Occitan_language"]angues d'oc[/ame] of his mother's Aquitaine.
Norman French was langues d'oïl with a lot of Norse influence. Richard's father Henry could certainly understand Old Norman although he most likely spoke an Angevin/Parisian dialect, Wace, Roman du Rou commissioned by Henry was written in Old Norman. La Reyne le vault
[ame=http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/La_Reyne_le_veult]La Reyne le veult - Wikipedia, the free encyclopedia[/ame]
| |
| |
February 5th, 2014, 05:25 AM
|
#4 | Historian
Joined: Sep 2008 From: Halicarnassus, 353BC Posts: 1,855 |
This is a very interesting question.
In his book ‘The Adventure of English’ Melvyn Bragg does an excellent job of showing the astonishing changes the language went through at this time.
Bear in mind of course that speaking ‘English’ in the 12th century was very, VERY far away from speaking English today. Modern English takes such a huge proportion of its vocabulary from French, that it is completely unrecognisable compared to the old pre-1066 language. As I understand it over 80% of the Anglo Saxon vocabulary has been lost, meaning it isn’t used anymore. The words that remain are often the common, ‘base’ type words to do with the connecting parts of a sentence, and to do with farming, the land, etc. All the ‘high’ status word for intellectual concepts are of French origin.
As I understand it, Henry V was the first to address the people in English, at least in written form. There is anecdotal evidence that some of the kings before that may have understood some English, but I think Henry V is the first where we have conclusive proof.
Starting in August 1417, Henry V promoted the use of the English language in government, and his reign marks the appearance of Chancery Standard English as well as the adoption of English as the language of record within Government. He was the first king to use English in his personal correspondence since the Norman conquest, which had occurred 350 years earlier. Here's a sample text, in Old English, just to show the differences we are up against:
Cnut cyning gret his arcebiscopas and his leod-biscopas and Þurcyl eorl and ealle his eorlas and ealne his þeodscype, twelfhynde and twyhynde, gehadode and læwede, on Englalande freondlice. ¶ Cnut, king, greets his archbishops and his lede'(people's)'-bishops and Thorkell, earl, and all his earls and all his peopleship, greater (having a 1200 shilling weregild) and lesser (200 shilling weregild), hooded(ordained to priesthood) and lewd(lay), in England friendly.
And ic cyðe eow, þæt ic wylle beon hold hlaford and unswicende to godes gerihtum and to rihtre woroldlage. And I kithe(make known/couth to) you, that I will be [a] hold(civilised) lord and unswiking(uncheating) to God's rights(laws) and to [the] rights(laws) worldly.
¶ Ic nam me to gemynde þa gewritu and þa word, þe se arcebiscop Lyfing me fram þam papan brohte of Rome, þæt ic scolde æghwær godes lof upp aræran and unriht alecgan and full frið wyrcean be ðære mihte, þe me god syllan wolde. ¶ I nam(took) me to mind the writs and the word that the Archbishop Lyfing me from the Pope brought of Rome, that I should ayewhere(everywhere) God's love(praise) uprear(promote), and unright(outlaw) lies, and full frith(peace) work(bring about) by the might that me God would(wished) [to] sell'(give).
¶ Nu ne wandode ic na minum sceattum, þa hwile þe eow unfrið on handa stod: nu ic mid godes fultume þæt totwæmde mid minum scattum. ¶ Now, ne went(withdrew/changed) I not my shot(financial contribution, cf. Norse cognate in scot-free) the while that you stood(endured) unfrith(turmoil) on-hand: now I, mid(with) God's support, that [unfrith] totwemed(separated/dispelled) mid(with) my shot(financial contribution).
Þa cydde man me, þæt us mara hearm to fundode, þonne us wel licode: and þa for ic me sylf mid þam mannum þe me mid foron into Denmearcon, þe eow mæst hearm of com: and þæt hæbbe mid godes fultume forene forfangen, þæt eow næfre heonon forð þanon nan unfrið to ne cymð, þa hwile þe ge me rihtlice healdað and min lif byð.
[I]Tho(then) [a] man kithed(made known/couth to) me that us more harm had found(come upon) than us well liked(equalled): and tho(then) fore(travelled) I, meself, mid(with) those men that mid(with) me fore(travelled), into Denmark that [to] you most harm came of(from): and that[harm] have , mid(with) God's support, afore(previously) forefangen(forestalled) that to you never henceforth thence none unfrith(breach of peace) ne come the while that ye me rightly hold(behold as king) and my life beeth. |
Last edited by RoyalHill1987; February 5th, 2014 at 05:40 AM.
|
| |
February 5th, 2014, 07:05 AM
|
#5 | Historian
Joined: Dec 2011 Posts: 2,486 | Quote:
Originally Posted by RoyalHill1987 This is a very interesting question.
In his book ‘The Adventure of English’ Melvyn Bragg does an excellent job of showing the astonishing changes the language went through at this time.
Bear in mind of course that speaking ‘English’ in the 12th century was very, VERY far away from speaking English today. Modern English takes such a huge proportion of its vocabulary from French, that it is completely unrecognisable compared to the old pre-1066 language. As I understand it over 80% of the Anglo Saxon vocabulary has been lost, meaning it isn’t used anymore. The words that remain are often the common, ‘base’ type words to do with the connecting parts of a sentence, and to do with farming, the land, etc. All the ‘high’ status word for intellectual concepts are of French origin.
As I understand it, Henry V was the first to address the people in English, at least in written form. There is anecdotal evidence that some of the kings before that may have understood some English, but I think Henry V is the first where we have conclusive proof.
Starting in August 1417, Henry V promoted the use of the English language in government, and his reign marks the appearance of Chancery Standard English as well as the adoption of English as the language of record within Government. He was the first king to use English in his personal correspondence since the Norman conquest, which had occurred 350 years earlier. Here's a sample text, in Old English, just to show the differences we are up against:
Cnut cyning gret his arcebiscopas and his leod-biscopas and Þurcyl eorl and ealle his eorlas and ealne his þeodscype, twelfhynde and twyhynde, gehadode and læwede, on Englalande freondlice. ¶ Cnut, king, greets his archbishops and his lede'(people's)'-bishops and Thorkell, earl, and all his earls and all his peopleship, greater (having a 1200 shilling weregild) and lesser (200 shilling weregild), hooded(ordained to priesthood) and lewd(lay), in England friendly.
And ic cyðe eow, þæt ic wylle beon hold hlaford and unswicende to godes gerihtum and to rihtre woroldlage. And I kithe(make known/couth to) you, that I will be [a] hold(civilised) lord and unswiking(uncheating) to God's rights(laws) and to [the] rights(laws) worldly.
¶ Ic nam me to gemynde þa gewritu and þa word, þe se arcebiscop Lyfing me fram þam papan brohte of Rome, þæt ic scolde æghwær godes lof upp aræran and unriht alecgan and full frið wyrcean be ðære mihte, þe me god syllan wolde. ¶ I nam(took) me to mind the writs and the word that the Archbishop Lyfing me from the Pope brought of Rome, that I should ayewhere(everywhere) God's love(praise) uprear(promote), and unright(outlaw) lies, and full frith(peace) work(bring about) by the might that me God would(wished) [to] sell'(give).
¶ Nu ne wandode ic na minum sceattum, þa hwile þe eow unfrið on handa stod: nu ic mid godes fultume þæt totwæmde mid minum scattum. ¶ Now, ne went(withdrew/changed) I not my shot(financial contribution, cf. Norse cognate in scot-free) the while that you stood(endured) unfrith(turmoil) on-hand: now I, mid(with) God's support, that [unfrith] totwemed(separated/dispelled) mid(with) my shot(financial contribution).
Þa cydde man me, þæt us mara hearm to fundode, þonne us wel licode: and þa for ic me sylf mid þam mannum þe me mid foron into Denmearcon, þe eow mæst hearm of com: and þæt hæbbe mid godes fultume forene forfangen, þæt eow næfre heonon forð þanon nan unfrið to ne cymð, þa hwile þe ge me rihtlice healdað and min lif byð.
[I]Tho(then) [a] man kithed(made known/couth to) me that us more harm had found(come upon) than us well liked(equalled): and tho(then) fore(travelled) I, meself, mid(with) those men that mid(with) me fore(travelled), into Denmark that [to] you most harm came of(from): and that[harm] have , mid(with) God's support, afore(previously) forefangen(forestalled) that to you never henceforth thence none unfrith(breach of peace) ne come the while that ye me rightly hold(behold as king) and my life beeth. | By the 12th century middle English was in use, the York writ of Cnut above circa 1020 is already starting to turn, gret would be greteð (greteth) in West Saxon Standard OE.
Of the 100 most common words used in modern English most are OE in origin with the next most common being Old Norse, French only has a couple like "number" for example.
This is the last ASC entry in late Standard OE, 1131
se kyng Heanri com ham to Engleland toforen heruest æfter Sancti Petres messe þe firrer.
1132 is in early middle English
Ðis gear com Henri king to þis land. Þa com Henri abbot
| |
| |
February 5th, 2014, 11:15 AM
|
#6 | Scholar
Joined: Oct 2012 From: Bristol, England Posts: 802 |
Presumably the pre-conquest Kings of England spoke Old English?
| |
| |
February 5th, 2014, 12:55 PM
|
#7 | Historian
Joined: Sep 2011 Posts: 4,257 | Quote:
Originally Posted by astafjevs Presumably the pre-conquest Kings of England spoke Old English? | As Scandinavian, I can attest that the Old English has a lot of striking similarities with Scandinavian.
"þæt ic wylle beon hold hlaford and unswicende"
hold=huld (still useable, if ancient)
unswicende=osvikande (you can give just about every verb a negation by sticking "un-/o-" on before it, in particular in the north Swedish dialects)
Between my knowledge of contemporary English, and modern Swedish, it feels as if I just might be able to get these blokes, had I been able to meet them. | |
| |
February 5th, 2014, 01:13 PM
|
#8 | Historian
Joined: Sep 2013 From: Scotland Posts: 1,384 | Quote:
Originally Posted by Larrey As Scandinavian, I can attest that the Old English has a lot of striking similarities with Scandinavian.
"þæt ic wylle beon hold hlaford and unswicende"
hold=huld (still useable, if ancient)
unswicende=osvikande (you can give just about every verb a negation by sticking "un-/o-" on before it, in particular in the north Swedish dialects)
Between my knowledge of contemporary English, and modern Swedish, it feels as if I just might be able to get these blokes, had I been able to meet them.  | Been watching "The Bridge" Larrey and being Scottish thought I could get the gist of much of it. Strange ending though.
Gushel.
| |
| |
February 5th, 2014, 11:18 PM
|
#9 | Scholar
Joined: Dec 2012 From: UK Posts: 888 |
It is said that George I could not speak English and that is why the role of the Prime Minister became so important.
| |
| |
February 6th, 2014, 02:46 AM
|
#10 | Historian
Joined: Sep 2013 From: Scotland Posts: 1,384 | Quote:
Originally Posted by Thibault It is said that George I could not speak English and that is why the role of the Prime Minister became so important. | I think the family continued to speak German amongst themselves up to about 100 years ago?
God knows the Stuarts were bad enough but George I, the "Wee German Lairdie", was a monster.
Stuart frying pan to Guelph fire.
Gushel.
|
Last edited by The Gushel; February 6th, 2014 at 02:50 AM.
|
| | Search tags for this page | | Thread Tools | | Display Modes | Linear Mode |
Copyright © 2006-2013 Historum. All rights reserved.
|  |