Originally Posted by Tulius
I think that with this new fashion about parallel/alternate history the work of future historians can be very confusing! Imagine one with a history book about WWII in one hand and “The Man in the High Castle” in the other!
Anyway, a bit more close to the thread theme,
Are the “Arabs” of the ancient sources the same “Arabs” (linguist speaking) of a thousand years later?
I was going to ask the same questions!
Modern day arabs are the native arabic speaker that reside in the Levant, Arabia and North Africa.
What were the arabs back then? Are the Nabateans considered arabs? What about the ancient kingdoms of Yemen? Arabia at that time was not unified under one nation, and according to Islam they didn't even have one dialect, so what does constitute an Arab? Are ancient Arabs the pagan semitic bedouins that inhabited Arabia? did they cross over to Syria and Iraq? What separate them from the ancient semitic tribes and civilizations of the levant and Mesopotamia ?