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Old August 28th, 2011, 05:46 PM   #1
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Indo-Aryans and Semites


If I understand current theory regarding the spread of the Indo-Aryan languages their original speakers spread out over all of Europe, through Persia and into India. Supposedly they did this from an area near the Caucacus Mountains.
I am curious as to why they weren't able to penetrate into the southwest corner of Asia? The area where the Semitic tribes live. The terrain isn't that different from Persia and India. Any ideas? I theorize they could not defeat the Semitic tribes, though I don't have any thing other than a hunch about that.
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Old August 28th, 2011, 06:17 PM   #2

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Because Semitic cultures and civilisations are older and stronger in the Middle East than Indo-European ones.
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Old August 29th, 2011, 03:10 AM   #3

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Originally Posted by Disciple View Post
I am curious as to why they weren't able to penetrate into the southwest corner of Asia? The area where the Semitic tribes live. The terrain isn't that different from Persia and India. Any ideas? I theorize they could not defeat the Semitic tribes, though I don't have any thing other than a hunch about that.
First I want to say the semitic civilisations were clearly more developped than indo-europeans. But it was not this what saved them: semitics(except egypthians-if egypthians were semitic) were divised, and were not such military powerful. Hitites were indo-europeans. They imposed over all semitic civilisations, except egypthians. There were egypthians who saved semitic civilisations. If not egypthians, probably hitites would been the masters of middle east, like aryans in India, even after mixing with local populations, their indo-european feathures would palled
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Old August 29th, 2011, 07:47 AM   #4

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First I want to say the semitic civilisations were clearly more developped than indo-europeans. But it was not this what saved them: semitics(except egypthians-if egypthians were semitic) were divised, and were not such military powerful. Hitites were indo-europeans. They imposed over all semitic civilisations, except egypthians. There were egypthians who saved semitic civilisations. If not egypthians, probably hitites would been the masters of middle east, like aryans in India, even after mixing with local apopulations, their indo-european feathures would palled
Aryans were master of middle east until Arabs invasion . So if this wasn't happened , all middle east was Persinalized and the superior race of Aryans spread around this part of the world .
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Old August 29th, 2011, 09:06 AM   #5

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Aryans were master of middle east until Arabs invasion . So if this wasn't happened , all middle east was Persinalized and the superior race of Aryans spread around this part of the world .
Really? Were the Sumerians Aryan? Were the Egyptians Aryan? Were the Babylonians, Akkadians, Assyrians, Arameans, Hebrews, and Phoenicians Aryan? You wish.

Typical Persian nationalist such as yourself would come up with that conclusion.

I would be careful calling Aryans a "superior race" because you might get a suspension for repeating Nazi sh*t.
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Old August 29th, 2011, 09:14 AM   #6

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Please do not start the aryan theory all over again
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Old August 29th, 2011, 11:03 AM   #7

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Really? Were the Sumerians Aryan? Were the Egyptians Aryan? Were the Babylonians, Akkadians, Assyrians, Arameans, Hebrews, and Phoenicians Aryan? You wish.
They were not .
But the middle east was in the control of Aryans like Meds ,Persians for more than 1300 years .
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Old August 29th, 2011, 11:10 AM   #8

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They were not .
But the middle east was in the control of Aryans like Meds ,Persians for more than 1300 years .
But its culture and civilisation was mostly shaped by Semites and other non-Aryan people. What did the Persians do that's not been done before by non-Persians?
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Old August 29th, 2011, 06:53 PM   #9

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But its culture and civilisation was mostly shaped by Semites and other non-Aryan people. What did the Persians do that's not been done before by non-Persians?
Your question is like to say , what did the Romans before Greeks?
It's some information about Aryans .
[ame=http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Aryan]Aryan - Wikipedia, the free encyclopedia[/ame]
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Old August 30th, 2011, 12:02 AM   #10
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Aryans were master of middle east until Arabs invasion . So if this wasn't happened , all middle east was Persinalized and the superior race of Aryans spread around this part of the world .
The indigenous people had been there continuously for the last 9,000 years at least.

4000-3100 Uruk period - the emergence of urban life.

3500 The first Semite migrations (Amorites)

3400-2000 there were other nearby cultures, the Kura-Araxes culture spread out from the eastern Caucasus mountains to Greece was just one.

Circa 3,000 BC the people in this region begin writing (Urk)

Circa 2,200 BC a eastern tribal group developed horse technology. They used bows and arrows from horseback and were invincible on the plain.
They also domesticated sheep.

Before, people just ate them. But in this region, circa 4k BC, people began raising sheep for wool - they began weaving.

With horse born armies the Celts, Tocharians, Hittites and Persians were the first to hit the road.

The Celts were very widespread, as were the Persians. The Hittites were fewer in number and the Tocharians may have been the smallest of the early Indo-European migration. But they may not have been the smallest. There were a lot of Tocharians, they settled in the Tarim, the Alti mountains and east to Lake Baikal. Some of them must have been neighbors with the Persian tribes. They probably remembered each other from the "Old Country" in Ukraine. In Tarim at one point, the northern route was Tocharian and the southern route was Persian.

So, yea the Indo-Euros shook up the neighborhood wherever they went.

For whatever reason, they were the type A personalities. They wound up running the show everywhere they went.

But there wasn't an endless supply of them and SW Asia wasn't choice real estate for a horse nomad.
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