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Old November 6th, 2009, 06:09 AM   #1
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Would you consider Aristotle to be a Macedonian?


Why do people always call Alexander Macedonian but call Aristotle Greek? Were they not both born and raised royally in Macedonia?
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Old November 7th, 2009, 06:38 AM   #2

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Re: Would you consider Aristotle to be a Macedonian?


Alexander was born in Pellas (I think), the capital of Makedonia. He became king of Makedonia after the death of his father Phillip. Fair to call him Makedonian.

Aristotle was born in Chalkidiki in 384 BCE. Chalchidiki was part of Thrace and didn't become part of Makedon until 348 BCE.
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Old November 7th, 2009, 07:04 AM   #3

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Re: Would you consider Aristotle to be a Macedonian?


Which throws up the question, why isn't he called Aristotle the Thracian.
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Old November 7th, 2009, 07:07 AM   #4

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Re: Would you consider Aristotle to be a Macedonian?


The Makedonians were barbarians. The Thracians were just Greeks.
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Old November 7th, 2009, 08:21 AM   #5

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Re: Would you consider Aristotle to be a Macedonian?


Quote:
Originally Posted by Toltec View Post
Which throws up the question, why isn't he called Aristotle the Thracian.
Philosophers aren't known like this .. only kings.

He might have been known as Aristotle of Chalcidice (like Heraclitus of Ephesus), but even so, there should be a good reason for that ... (There must have been more than one Heraclitus, at Heraclitus' days. Or else, maybe later Ephesus claimed Heraclitus to themselves, and may have made a propaganda which left us the name "Heraclitus of Ephesus" .. speculations, anyway.)

It might make sense for someone to be known by the name of the city where he came from or where he lived mainly ... But not much the region. Except for kings and other aristoi.

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Old November 7th, 2009, 08:25 AM   #6

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Re: Would you consider Aristotle to be a Macedonian?


(By the way, this thread should rather be in the Ancient History board, shouldn't it? ...)
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