1500-1550 AD Spain vs 1520-1570 AD Ottoman Empire - Historum

**Alcibiades** · June 6th, 2011, 05:39 AM

Who would win in an all-out,total war between these 2 superpowers,probably the 2 greatest powers of 16th century?And how would it unfold?

Discuss.
Alcibiades

halomanuk · June 6th, 2011, 05:53 AM

It would be close but i would tip it towards the organisational skills and better fleet of the Spanish (assuming we are taking all aspects of the countries force,including ships etc.)

**gaius valerius** · June 6th, 2011, 05:57 AM

They'd wear each other out and come to terms as they did in reality. Neither of those 2 could beat each other at their homeground nor could they muster the resources necessary to do so in a protracted effort. Wars as always were generally decided by who could no longer muster the means to continue them. Or are you assuming something a-historical without all the realistic constraints of the early modern world? Then this is the wrong thread section

**Alcibiades** · June 6th, 2011, 06:38 AM

Quote:

Originally Posted by gaius valerius

They'd wear each other out and come to terms as they did in reality. Neither of those 2 could beat each other at their homeground nor could they muster the resources necessary to do so in a protracted effort. Wars as always were generally decided by who could no longer muster the means to continue them. Or are you assuming something a-historical without all the realistic constraints of the early modern world? Then this is the wrong thread section

The only difference I am introducing is the will of these countries to completely duke it out,all-or-nothing attitude(something which did not exist in reality).

Think about Peloponnesian War.If you had lived in mid-5th century Eastern Mediterranean world,would you have thought possible the total war between Sparta and Athens,where they go all-out?Where the defeated is at absolute mercy of the victor?They are both supreme in their homeground,and seem unbeatable in it.Be honest.

Yet,look what happened.
Alcibiades

**DreamWeaver** · June 6th, 2011, 07:15 AM

Hmmmmm, Ottomans.

**Alcibiades** · June 6th, 2011, 07:16 AM

Quote:

Originally Posted by DreamWeaver

Hmmmmm, Ottomans.

Why?And after how much time?
Alcibiades

**DreamWeaver** · June 6th, 2011, 07:22 AM

IF Memory serves.....and it might not....I fail to recall any time that Spain (and I assume we are justs talking spain here) single handidly induced a major defeat at land or sea on the Ottomans. Lepanto, overrated, Malta was a nightmare. I just cant recall any. Numerosu Holy Leagues and other organisations failed to put a halt on the Ottomans (atleast not until the later 17th Century) .

Spain despite the wealth of the Americas was bankrupting itself for its part in the Hapsburg Valois conflicts.

I fail to see Spain overcoming the Ottomans. I cant se spain winning in such a struggle.

Lasher · June 6th, 2011, 07:33 AM

The war would be inconclusive. How would the Spanish/Ottomans inflict a severe defeat on the other based on their geography? Sure, the fleets would battle it out but the great distance between the two would ensure that whoever operated on interior lines could inflict defeat on the other. Diplomacy would decide it all, and especially with the other European nations.

**Qymaen** · June 6th, 2011, 07:34 AM

Neither because the British would go back in time, assuming this is before 1707, pissed and join the side that was losing. The second that side starts to win they'll switch to the other side. Almost every war GB has fought in has been like that.

Lasher · June 6th, 2011, 07:35 AM

Quote:

Originally Posted by Qymaen

Neither because the British would go back in time, assuming the is before 1707, pissed and join the side that was losing. The second that side starts to win they'll switch to the other side. Almost every war GB has fought in has been like that.

Great Britain has always had an interest in the Balance of Power.