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Old July 12th, 2015, 02:26 AM   #11

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I believe the crimes of Nazi Germany were more ideologically driven and their ideology was worse than Japans. Japans crimes were more culturally driven eventually. I looked up Baatan Deatch March when Domhall mentioned it and there it says the Japanese were accustomed to greater hardships (less food than Nazis etc) and this results in harsher treatments of the enemy.
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Old July 12th, 2015, 05:10 AM   #12
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I immediately wanted to say japan, but if I think twice, it is probably the Wehrmacht which was more involved in crimes. There is no such things as the nanking massacre, but other crimes are frequent. This is maybe the great problem. The naking massacre is synnonymous for the Japanese, the baatan death march is. But if people think about the Wehrmacht, then the western theatre is the rule for the behaviour of the Wehrmacht, while the eastern front is the exception.

A major crime of the Wehrmacht was the treatment of the Soviet POWs. The Wehrmacht hadn't made preparations for these POWs, there was not enough food and as well a lack of goodwill, to organize it. There were exceptions, where commanders of dulags e.g. tried to organize food, but it didn't help much. The situation changed, when the German industry needed workers and when it became obvious, that the Soviet willnot surrender, if the treatment of POWs became known.

Another involvement was the selection of commissoners and Jews from the POWs. They were handed out to the EGr.

The differences to the japanese are, that first of all the number of POWs in German responsibility was much higher, that there was no political order to exterminate special groups and, that the German ill-treatment was more or less limited to Soviet POWs, while others, especially the western POWs were treated according to international treaties.

The next great crimes of the Wehrmacht are the ones connected with the Holocaust. Several Wehrmacht units were used for the extermination of Jews, especially in connection with an anti-partisan warfare. Examples are already mentioned, e.g. Belarus or Serbia.

In these anti-partisan warfare, probably Wehrmacht and IJA behaved very similar. maybe here the numbers of victims of the IJA are bigger than those of the Wehrmacht.

Another point is mentioned by Scaeva. But first a correction. "Rapes were allowed in practice by the German military" is absolutely nonsense. Crimes were not allowed. By the Kriegsgerichtserlaß it was ordered, that crimes should not be prosecuted, if they did not threaten the military order. That's a great difference. But it very probably did promote war crimes.
Correct is, that female soldiers, especially female partisans were not seen as legal combattants. Female partisans were usually killed, maybe an unknown number was raped. I can't exclude, that medical personal was raped. That may have happened. Such behaviour is indeed more than once reported for the treatment of German nurses.
I already had heard about the number of 10,000,000 rapes in the Soviet Union or even more. The figures is afaik based on a statement of Himmler, that german soldiers made up to 1 million babies. I am very sceptical about these figure. That are more than 3,000,000 rapes a year. Statistically every German soldiers must have raped more than one time. It woulb be an explanation why the Wehrmacht lost
We as well have to keep in mind, that the vast Soviet area was controlled by low number of troops. When rapes happened, then rather in the rear than in the combat zone. So the vast majority of the 10 million or more rapes must have been committed by a few thousands of men.
It seems rather plausible, that these mainly feministic historians count every sexual between occupiers and occupied in a war as rape. So if really 1 million babies were born, then rather by such voluntarily sexual contacts, then by rape. But I would as well generally question the Himmler claim.
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