Let me correct you about one thing: the US offered the Marshall Plan to the Soviet Union, but they turned it down. Idiots. Free money, who could refuse that? The Soviets could and did.After the occupation of France (1939) and the Kingdom of Yugoslavia (1941), the Nazis imposed the most rigorous rules in France and Serbia. Example, for one dead German soldier, 100 civilians would be shot. The French government advised people not to give resistance to the German occupation, in the hope that the allied army would succeed in releasing them soon.Yugoslavia was occupied completely in 11 days. The army of the Kingdom of Yugoslavia had no time to mobilize, i.e. the mobilization was ordered is too late. But even so, a large number of civilians took weapons and entered the streets by resisting the German occupation. France was largely relieved of the intervention of the United Kingdom and the United States of America. While Partisan leaders led by Marshal Josip Broz Tito successfully freed most of their teroriir from the enemy before the forces of the Red Army came.
France received a special position within the United Nations Security Council, as well as control over part of Germany. While Yugoslavia only received praise from both sides. The Allies wanted to weaken the Soviet influence in Europe, putting pressure on the liberated countries to oppose the "new evil". And to choose instead a democratic system. The leadership of the Soviet Union was shocked by the fact that the Marshall Plan did not encompass the Soviet Union and their "puppet states", as well as the pressure of the Allies that territories under the auspices of the USSR become democracies and decide for themselves which political system to choose.
How do you characterize the role of France and Serbia (Yugoslavia) in the Second World War?
Why didn't they try to liberate it?All that doesn't mean the Partisans liberated most of Yugoslavia before 1944 which is what the OP claimed. I do honor the Partisans and I admit that, unlike the Chetniks, they never collaborated with the Axis, but let's not exaggerate their accomplishments. Speaking of Jasenovac, one must ask the question why the Partisans never tried to liberate it.
As I said, a controversial question. The official reason was that it was simply militarily very hard to do, almost impossible and that the Partisans couldn't risk it. However, there are certain indications that perhaps some other things were at play. For example, Pavle Jakšić, colonel-general of the Yugoslav People's Army and the member of the Partisans had this to say about the potential liberation of Jasenovac:Why didn't they try to liberate it?
Partisans were partially collaborating with Italians on some occasions. Pacts of non attacking or in Slovenia they mopped white guard in 1943 together.All that doesn't mean the Partisans liberated most of Yugoslavia before 1944 which is what the OP claimed. I do honor the Partisans and I admit that, unlike the Chetniks, they never collaborated with the Axis, but let's not exaggerate their accomplishments. Speaking of Jasenovac, one must ask the question why the Partisans never tried to liberate it.
It was not a partisan goal. You all bought that liberation was their goal but communists did nothing after Yugoslavia was occupied, they praised Stalin-Hitler pact. In my country they were making an anti imperialist front three weeks after occupation of Yugoslavia aimed against western allies. Later they renamed it into a Liberation front.Why didn't they try to liberate it?
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