Did Hungary's pre-WWI Magyarization policy include encouraging Hungarians to settle in the non-Hungarian parts of Hungary?

Futurist

Ad Honoris
May 2014
16,703
SoCal
#1
I know about Hungary's pre-WWI Magyarization policy--specifically where Hungary tried to transform its ethnic minorities into Hungarians (Magyars):

Magyarization - Wikipedia

It did this through measures such as forcing schoolchildren to learn and speak Hungarian and discouraging the use of other languages. What I am curious about is this, though--did this Magyarization policy also include encouraging Hungarians to settle in the non-Hungarian parts of Hungary? Or was the goal merely to Magyarize the existing populations of Hungary's non-Hungarian territories without getting a lot of Hungarians to settle in these territories?

Any thoughts on this? Do we have any experts on Hungary on this forum?
 

Futurist

Ad Honoris
May 2014
16,703
SoCal
#4
Basically: no, the policy wasn't pushing for settling non-Hungarian areas.
So, it was simply limited to encouraging non-Magyars to begin speaking Hungarian and identifying as Magyars, correct?

If so, then I'm presuming that the massive increase in the Hungarian language in cities such as Bratislava in the pre-WWI years and decades was almost exclusively the result of Slovaks and/or Germans beginning to use the Hungarian language and identify as Magyars as opposed to being the result of large-scale Hungarian settlement in these cities, correct?
 
Oct 2013
13,798
Europix
#5
So, it was simply limited to encouraging non-Magyars to begin speaking Hungarian and identifying as Magyars, correct?

If so, then I'm presuming that the massive increase in the Hungarian language in cities such as Bratislava in the pre-WWI years and decades was almost exclusively the result of Slovaks and/or Germans beginning to use the Hungarian language and identify as Magyars as opposed to being the result of large-scale Hungarian settlement in these cities, correct?
Tulun would be of great help on these questions.

I don't remember how the censuses were done: was is about motherlanguage, was it spoken language, was it self declared?

Anyway, there's the economic and the cultural/educational factor.

Hungary in that period was also in an industrialization period. Meaning more movement, and as Hungarian enterprises were ... Hungarian, regardless of ethnicity, Hungarian language started to impose itself. If nothing else, because it was the administration language and a "lingua franca".

Also culture and education influenced: high level implied Hungarian language.

All that is something different from settling.
 
Likes: Futurist

Futurist

Ad Honoris
May 2014
16,703
SoCal
#6
Tulun would be of great help on these questions.

I don't remember how the censuses were done: was is about motherlanguage, was it spoken language, was it self declared?
I think that it was about mother language.

Anyway, there's the economic and the cultural/educational factor.

Hungary in that period was also in an industrialization period. Meaning more movement, and as Hungarian enterprises were ... Hungarian, regardless of ethnicity, Hungarian language started to impose itself. If nothing else, because it was the administration language and a "lingua franca".

Also culture and education influenced: high level implied Hungarian language.

All that is something different from settling.
Very interesting!

Also, do you think that the Hungarian language would have become totally dominant in Hungary had Magyarization continued up to the present-day and Hungary retained its 1914 borders? Would Slovak, Ukrainian, Romanian, Serbian, Croatian, and German have become dying and almost dead languages within Hungary by now?
 
Oct 2013
13,798
Europix
#7
I think that it was about mother language.



Very interesting!

Also, do you think that the Hungarian language would have become totally dominant in Hungary had Magyarization continued up to the present-day and Hungary retained its 1914 borders? Would Slovak, Ukrainian, Romanian, Serbian, Croatian, and German have become dying and almost dead languages within Hungary by now?
IMHO no: at least German, Slovak, Serb and Romanian communities were way too big, plus they were compact (territorially speaking), strong traditions, national self-consciousness aso. Add for Serbs and Romanians the vicinity of Serbia and Romania.
 
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Futurist

Ad Honoris
May 2014
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#8
IMHO no: at least German, Slovak, Serb and Romanian communities were way too big, plus they were compact (territorially speaking), strong traditions, national self-consciousness aso. Add for Serbs and Romanians the vicinity of Serbia and Romania.
The Occitans also had a large contiguous territorial mass and yet they were transformed into French-speakers, no?

You are correct about the Serbs and Romanians being able to smuggle books in their own languages from Serbia and Romania, though. That, plus the fact that they have different religions.
 
Jul 2014
41
Slovakia
#9
Actually, there was such intention. Probably not full scale resetlement of people because there was not enough magyars to do that. But it was encouraged indirectly, through emigration. North eastern part of Hungary was very underdeveloped and poor country. Hundreeds of thousands of Slovaks (up to 250 000) and Rusyns (150 000) were encouraged to emigrate to united states. Many of them travelled illegaly, no identification, no official authorizations and yet magistracy was ordered not to cause people trouble if they want to travel to US. Situation changed a little around 1900 when too much people left and there was deficiency of workers for estates. Regulations has became a little more rigorous.
 
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Futurist

Ad Honoris
May 2014
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SoCal
#10
Actually, there was such intention. Probably not full scale resetlement of people because there was not enough magyars to do that. But it was encouraged indirectly, through emigration. North eastern part of Hungary was very underdeveloped and poor country. Hundreeds of thousands of Slovaks (up to 250 000) and Rusyns (150 000) were encouraged to emigrate to united states. Many of them travelled illegaly, no identification, no official authorizations and yet magistracy was ordered not to cause people trouble if they want to travel to US. Situation changed a little around 1900 when too much people left and there was deficiency of workers for estates. Regulations has became a little more rigorous.
Was documentation required to travel throughout Hungary back then?

Also, were the estates in northern Hungary owned by Magyars?
 

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