Do you believe 1453 or 1492 is a "better" end-point for the Medieval Era?


Ad Honorem
May 2016
I'd say it ended in different times in different places.

If you want a generally, BIG date, it is 1453 is bigger than 1492 by a long shot. Columbus didn't have a huge impact on European history, it was Charles V in the next century that really made the Americas impact Europe. Also, in the 16th century you got England really coming out of the Middle Ages as well either in the time of Henry VIII or Elizabeth I. I'd say parts of Italy and Germany and were already becoming modern as early as the 13th and 14th centuries. The Iberian Peninsula, it's really difficult to say whether they really had a medieval era, since they were the last area of antiquity, and the Arab conquest brought it into Rennaissance era like Golden Age immediately following, during the 8th century.

But generally 1500 (as the forum says) is a good date, since it's really the early 16th century where the majority of Europe changes - and not just the pockets I described above.
“Columbus didn't have a huge impact on European history”? Well, maybe not specifically the man, but his voyage didn’t had? It connected two continents, in a similar way that Vasco da Gama, or more correctly his voyage to India, had. They, or if you prefer, their voyages, were the first steps to of the Global Village that we have today.

As for the Medieval Era in the Iberian Peninsula, I will have to disagree with your reasoning, but that could lead us to derail this thread, and it is surely a theme that can deserve his own thread. It was a region that had a huge gap between the end of the Classical period and the beginning of the Expansion/Renaissance.

Anyway, online there is an academic site, a project that unfortunatly seems frozen, with works about the Medieval period in the Iberian Peninsula, for free and in English: Title Catalog, The Library of Iberian Resources Online