France doesn't fall in 1940; Stalin makes a move on Subcarpathian Ruthenia

Futurist

Ad Honoris
May 2014
18,742
SoCal
#1
Here is the scenario: Due to the French Seventh Army not being sent to the Low Countries and instead being kept at either Rheims or the Ardennes sector, France is able to stop the Manstein Plan (the Sickle-Cut) in its tracks--thus preventing the Fall of France in 1940 and causing World War II to become another stalemate like World War I.

Seeing Germany, Britain, and France bogged down in trench-like warfare, Stalin decides to finish the job of reunifying the Ukrainian lands. First of all, he successfully bullies Romania into giving up both Bessarabia and northern Bukovina. Then, Stalin decides to do a daring move and orders an invasion of Hungarian-controlled Subcarpathian Ruthenia (which is Ukrainian-majority). This invasion can be done either through conventional means or via paratroopers depending on what you think is best; personally, I think that Stalin might be fond of the paratrooper idea since it would allow his forces to get past any defenses that the Hungarians have on the Carpathian Mountains (this would be a similar strategy to what Nazi Germany used in Crete in 1941 in real life. Specifically, due to Britain's naval supremacy, Nazi Germany successfully used paratroopers to capture Crete).

Anyway, how do Hungary, Germany, France, Britain, and other European countries react to Stalin's seizure of Subcarpathian Ruthenia? I would think that Hungary would want to fight the Soviet Union over this, but without allies, it faces a very real risk of being completely overrun by the Soviet Union--with all of Hungary rather than only Subcarpathian Ruthenia fulling under Communist rule.

What are your thoughts on this scenario of mine?