Hitler occupies the Baltic countries instead of Czechia in March 1939

Futurist

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May 2014
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What if Adolf Hitler would have occupied the Baltic countries instead of occupying Czechia in March 1939?

For the record, the logic behind this would be that the Baltic countries would be a more logical Lebensraum destination than Czechia due to their lower population density.
 

pugsville

Ad Honorem
Oct 2010
9,791
What if Adolf Hitler would have occupied the Baltic countries instead of occupying Czechia in March 1939?

For the record, the logic behind this would be that the Baltic countries would be a more logical Lebensraum destination than Czechia due to their lower population density.
Well you can forget a Ribbentrop-Molotov pact, it would have sent alarms ringing in the Kremlin. Stalin was paranoid about buffer space. This just places German fores right next to key Russian areas.

And as for France and Brittan it does not matter what Hitler occupies next, occupying anything would total end of appeasement. Munich was a bridge to far, and the reaction was coming after Hitler's next move regardless of where.
 

Vaeltaja

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Sep 2012
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Baltics were also largely non-industrialized and relatively poor. Quite likely some of the more better off provinces of the former Imperial Russia but poor and rural on an European scale nonetheless. On comparison Czechia was a rich industrial giant.

Main problem with that are the imperial ambitions of USSR which clearly included the Baltic States. At local level much would depend on how exactly would the Germans try to accomplish that.
 

Futurist

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Well you can forget a Ribbentrop-Molotov pact, it would have sent alarms ringing in the Kremlin. Stalin was paranoid about buffer space. This just places German fores right next to key Russian areas.
Completely agreed with this. However, would it be enough to cause a Soviet declaration of war on Nazi Germany? Or would the Soviets be too scared to do anything without British and French help?

And as for France and Brittan it does not matter what Hitler occupies next, occupying anything would total end of appeasement. Munich was a bridge to far, and the reaction was coming after Hitler's next move regardless of where.
Oh, sure, Britain and France are certainly going to end appeasement after such a move on Hitler's part. However, would they have actually been willing to go to war on behalf of the Baltic countries?
 

Futurist

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May 2014
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Baltics were also largely non-industrialized and relatively poor. Quite likely some of the more better off provinces of the former Imperial Russia but poor and rural on an European scale nonetheless. On comparison Czechia was a rich industrial giant.
Oh, sure, Czechia certainly looked like a more attractive target for Nazi Germany. That said, though, a seizure of the Baltic countries would have fit more with Hitler's desire for Lebensraum.

Main problem with that are the imperial ambitions of USSR which clearly included the Baltic States. At local level much would depend on how exactly would the Germans try to accomplish that.
The Germans would try to accomplish this by a land invasion combined with air support.

Also, I think that the Soviets would have been more worried about Leningrad's security than about their imperial ambitions in such a scenario. Indeed, could the Soviet Union's increased security concerns in this scenario have resulted in a Franco-Soviet-British alliance?
 

Vaeltaja

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Sep 2012
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Completely agreed with this. However, would it be enough to cause a Soviet declaration of war on Nazi Germany? Or would the Soviets be too scared to do anything without British and French help?

Oh, sure, Britain and France are certainly going to end appeasement after such a move on Hitler's part. However, would they have actually been willing to go to war on behalf of the Baltic countries?
That really depends on how exactly would the German control take place. If it were more on the level of 'protectorate' with locals still nominally at power it might not ring all that many alarms. And with the growing Soviet threat locals might well be quite willing to take such a deal. It would also make Soviet claims of 'Nazi annexation' to ring rather hollow and make it quite difficult for any one to base a move towards a war for such a reason.
 

pugsville

Ad Honorem
Oct 2010
9,791
Completely agreed with this. However, would it be enough to cause a Soviet declaration of war on Nazi Germany? Or would the Soviets be too scared to do anything without British and French help?
I doubt it but plans would be in the works to overrun the Baltic states the first time the German army is involved elsewhere, it's indefensible. It makes a Franco-British-Soviet alliance somewhat more possible. (not likely just a bit more possible)

Oh, sure, Britain and France are certainly going to end appeasement after such a move on Hitler's part. However, would they have actually been willing to go to war on behalf of the Baltic countries?
No,. They would do the same as after Czechia, scatter Guarantees and increase rearmament,


Hitelrs's plans for colonization were pipe dreams. They could not find settlers during the war for their absurd plans. While such a move would perhaps be more in line with Hitler's fantasy, there was do population to settle these areas with.

Czechia, reaped significant gains, Czech arms , Czech factories, Czech gold. Baltics offered none of these.
 

Futurist

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That really depends on how exactly would the German control take place. If it were more on the level of 'protectorate' with locals still nominally at power it might not ring all that many alarms. And with the growing Soviet threat locals might well be quite willing to take such a deal. It would also make Soviet claims of 'Nazi annexation' to ring rather hollow and make it quite difficult for any one to base a move towards a war for such a reason.
It would be done as protectorates, but with a long-term goal of massive German colonization and annexation to the German Reich.
 

Futurist

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May 2014
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I doubt it but plans would be in the works to overrun the Baltic states the first time the German army is involved elsewhere, it's indefensible.
Is it indefensible, though? After all, Germany can supply the Baltic states by sea and Lithuania is safe from a Soviet invasion since Poland is in the way.

It makes a Franco-British-Soviet alliance somewhat more possible. (not likely just a bit more possible)
OK.

No,. They would do the same as after Czechia, scatter Guarantees and increase rearmament,
OK.

Hitelrs's plans for colonization were pipe dreams. They could not find settlers during the war for their absurd plans. While such a move would perhaps be more in line with Hitler's fantasy, there was do population to settle these areas with.
You mean "no population," correct?

Also, what about having population exchanges with neighboring countries and getting a couple of million Germans that way?

Czechia, reaped significant gains, Czech arms , Czech factories, Czech gold. Baltics offered none of these.
What about going after both the Baltic countries and Czechia in March 1939? Would that have been plausible? Or would that have triggered a major war?