How and when did "Roshan" become a popular name among Hindus?

Aatreya

Ad Honorem
Dec 2014
3,590
USA
True. As I said, both languages are derived from pre-Vedic.
caran vatso ruśanniha nidātāraṃ na vindate l veti stotavāmbyam ll
(For sovereigns of dear wealth are ye, Ādityas, not of sinner's wealth; you sapient Gods who slay the foe.)Dreamhunter, seems you are riding the horses of imagination. :)
No, Avestan/Persian is derived from Vedic.
 
Mar 2019
1,809
KL
whether avestan is derived from vedic sanskrit or not, but im surprised at the classification of avestan and other iranic languages, for instance it is argued that sanskrit is the mother language from which the rest of prakrits derived, but same case is not with avestan, if you just look at the linguistic charts, avestan is infact mother of no iranic language, and we see parallel iranic western, eastern branches existing simultaneously.

secondly iranic languages such as persian have already come into existence in the 5th BC, but indian languages like bengali, gujarati etc dont come into existence until 8th AD which is just ridiculous.

how has individual iranic language like persian already evolved more than a thousand years ago when individual prakrit languages are not categorized in the same manner? when both avestan and vedic sanskrit seem to have followed the same time period.

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some people who are learned in avestan have told me that there is only a dialectical diff btw sanskrit and avestan, this leads me to believe that avestan is an indo aryan language and not iranic language.

regards