Hardly "inland" looking". It was looking at the Baltic as its "mare nostrum". It just didn't have an overseas focus across the great oceans of the world. It had a tricky balance to strike between land and sea power, and on balance had to put more into being a land-power, which hugely benefited it for about a century.Same reason why Austria-Hungary never formed a colonial empire i.e. Sweden was an inland looking nation. Even during the Viking era, Swedes focused on the Baltic and Russian rivers down to Miklagård (Istanbul). On top of this like the other Scandinavian nations, the country did not have a vast population base with which it could colonize vast territories.
The contest with the Dutch over "New Sweden" (Delaware) in North America see-sawed back and forth, depending on who had temporarily the upper hand depending on who got his replacements and new resources through.Been a while since I read about this, but I recall that one of the early expeditions were captured and sold as slaves to the Caribbeans.
I don't know the answer, even if I think that Larrey's post can be close to it.The had colonies in North America, the Carribean, and Africa, but none of them lasted.
How so? How we measure if a country is good at colonization?Scandinavian countries weren't exactly good at colonization.
The question of the population wasn’t necessarily and obstacle. Portugal had around 1 million inhabitants, so even less than Sweden, when it begun its first of three colonial empires.A significant lack of resources. The population of the Swedish Empire in the 17th century was around 2.5 million. France at the same time had 20 million.
Sweden's sphere was always centred on the Baltic Sea, and the history of the Swedish Empire is mostly war with all of their neighbours(who also fought all of their neighbours and so on). There really was no room for anything else than a few attempts for some prestige and luxury items. I think the fact that the navy was always seeking to maintain baltic dominance obviously played a major role. I doubt the merchant fleet was made for Atlantic trade either.
Been a while since I read about this, but I recall that one of the early expeditions were captured and sold as slaves to the Caribbeans.
That is geographically incorrect for both states.Same reason why Austria-Hungary never formed a colonial empire i.e. Sweden was an inland looking nation.
Interesting. And answers to a question of mine in the previous post. Who were the buyers? Where can I read about this story online (if possible)?But it seems you are referring to the particularly weird circumstances. The ship was taken by French corsairs, operating on a mandate from the kingdom of France to attack and disrupt enemy shipping – except of course the Kingdom of France and the Kingdom of Sweden were allies. Not that the corsairs really cared, or maybe even quite knew who the Swedes where. It's kind of the problem of being a small, new actor in a naval warfare landscape were the issuing of letters-of-mark have effectively created an economic warfare situation on a basis of "crap happens", as the warfare has been sub-contracted out on a for-profit basis. Complaints could be made to Paris, compensation demanded, but obviously first the Swedes had to learn what had happened, and the the French needed to work it out as well, and by that time the captured Swedes (a considerable of number of the colonists, as many as half, being Finns btw) had already long hence been sold as slaves, and the profits pocketed by said private contractors.
Not sure you can. I can source it to Peter Englund's book, in Swedish, about Charles X and his times from idk, twenty years ago?Interesting. And answers to a question of mine in the previous post. Who were the buyers? Where can I read about this story online (if possible)?
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