How come the Swedish overseas empire didn't take off?

Larrey

Ad Honorem
Sep 2011
5,576
#11
About the last paragraph, I didn’t understood, the Swedes were captures and sold as slaves? Or the objective of the expedition was to capture and sell slaves?
French corsairs, operating under a French letter-of-mark to capture or destroy enemy shipping, captured a Swedish ship carrying crew and colonists to New Sweden, despite France and Sweden being allies – and the corsairs then sold the crew and the colonists into slavery in the Caribbean.
 

betgo

Ad Honorem
Jul 2011
6,216
#12
Were they sold as slaves or indentured servants? Under English law, Christians could not be enslaved. I assume that other colonial powers took the same approach.
 

Larrey

Ad Honorem
Sep 2011
5,576
#13
Were they sold as slaves or indentured servants? Under English law, Christians could not be enslaved. I assume that other colonial powers took the same approach.
Under French law at the time any black slave brought to France could be set free by one of the provincial courts. You assume someone with the power to do anything about it asked the question in a Caribbean slave market? The New World colonies were far away from the European motherlands, and operated directly on principles of exception from Europe. What went on in the colonies was a matter for the colonies.

Indentured servants signed a contract before leaving for the new world. These Swedish and Finnish colonists weren't indentured servants but settlers, farmers. They were then taken captive and sold into slavery, no real questions asked. It was a bit of for-profit entrepreneurial opportunism. Once done, not much anyone could do about it.
 

betgo

Ad Honorem
Jul 2011
6,216
#15
Most British indentured servants were convicted criminals. Some were vagrants or political prisoners, such as from Cromwell's conquest of Ireland. Some may have signed a contract, but it is now understood that was not the main way.

British prisoners were treated as indentured servants, not slaves. In some cases black African slaves were also treated as indentured servants because they had been baptized in Africa.

There has been discussion of this, and I have seen no evidence of white slaves in British territory. Maybe there were some in French territory. Is there any original source for that?
 

Tulius

Ad Honorem
May 2016
5,570
Portugal
#16
Not sure you can. I can source it to Peter Englund's book, in Swedish, about Charles X and his times from idk, twenty years ago?
Ok. Thanks.

French corsairs, operating under a French letter-of-mark to capture or destroy enemy shipping, captured a Swedish ship carrying crew and colonists to New Sweden, despite France and Sweden being allies – and the corsairs then sold the crew and the colonists into slavery in the Caribbean.
Yup. You posted the answer basically when I posted the question. I just saw it after I made the post. Thanks. That is indeed a quite interesting story of history. Any idea who were the buyers?

Most British indentured servants were convicted criminals. Some were vagrants or political prisoners, such as from Cromwell's conquest of Ireland. Some may have signed a contract, but it is now understood that was not the main way.

British prisoners were treated as indentured servants, not slaves. In some cases black African slaves were also treated as indentured servants because they had been baptized in Africa.

There has been discussion of this, and I have seen no evidence of white slaves in British territory. Maybe there were some in French territory. Is there any original source for that?
In some other thread I already posted situations of white slaves on Portuguese territories. Or better of slaves of almost any skin colour in the planet. It wouldn’t surprise me similar situation in territories of other colonial powers. If I recall well there was even a situation of a Chinese slave that followed her Portuguese Jew Masters as a slave to Holland when they moved there, due to problems with the Inquisition (in the 16th century).
 

Futurist

Ad Honoris
May 2014
20,095
SoCal
#17
Same reason why Austria-Hungary never formed a colonial empire i.e. Sweden was an inland looking nation. Even during the Viking era, Swedes focused on the Baltic and Russian rivers down to Miklagård (Istanbul). On top of this like the other Scandinavian nations, the country did not have a vast population base with which it could colonize vast territories.
TBF, Swedes and other Scandinavians helped the US settle Minnesota. :)
 

Willempie

Ad Honorem
Jul 2015
5,220
Netherlands
#20
The main reason is that their main naval organization was behind the Sond. The war against the Danes and Dutch made it quite impossible to do anything steady on the other side of the world