I need help History boi's!

Sep 2019
For some inexplicable reason, I cannot find any sources or texts that mention/explain why, that at least in Europe, there could be only ONE official Empire. (Like how it is a misnomer to call the Angevin Empire an 'Empire' because they didnt refer to themselves as one, mentioning that the Holy Roman Empire is the only true Empire)
I was hoping you guys could help me out, by other explaining or posting links, as to why this was the case. Apparently the answer also relates to Theology?
I appreciate the help :)
Likes: Futurist


Forum Staff
Aug 2016
I wonder if it had anything to do with the fact that the pope had something to do with creating the HRE with Charlemagne in the year 800. For the Angevins or any other West Europeans to also claim to be an empire would be to go against the pope which wasn't worth the bother. The Ottomans, Byzantines, Mongols, etc didn't recognize the pope and were under no such restriction.
Likes: Futurist
Apr 2017
I wouldnt consider either of those European Empires aha.
The closest would be Byzantine, for a brief period when they had most of the Italian peninsula and some of the Balkans lol
The capitals of the byzantine and ottoman empires were in Europe, as was much of their territory. The Russian empire was primarily based in Europe. The Mongol empire I was referring to was the Golden Horde, which ruled much of eastern Europe. The various western European colonial countries ruled vast empires (British, French, German, Dutch, Spanish, Portuguese, etc.). Napoleon called his domain an empire and took the title of emperor.
Oct 2015
Not so much the the Pope as the whole of Christendom (the Orthodox vs Roman split came later). One Faith - One Universal State.
The Empire of Constantinople considered itself THE Roman Empire and denied the Popes ability to name the King of the Franks Emperor.
It has to have to do with Constantine.