- Nov 2016
Surely there was a circumcision controversy but we don´t exactly know at which time. You can´t call a dating in the 1st century a "historical fact" because there is not the least concrete (i.e. contemporary) evidence for the existence of Christianity in that century.There were Jewish Christians who kept Mosaic laws and circumcised, and there were gentile Christians who did not. And the divide between them occurred at some point in 1st century. This much is agreed upon historical facts. It could be concluded even without the account of NT, that something like circumcision controversy did happen to create the divide
You should differentiate between inference and fact. All we have are texts from the 2nd century that allow - but not necessarily - the inference that Christianity emerged in the 1st century. However there is no concrete proof (= no contemporary evidence) for such a thing. Without such a proof you can´t talk of "facts".