- Apr 2015
Portugal was decisively beaten by Morocco in 1578, its king being killed on the battlefield. Spain conducted negotiations for peace with the Ottomans in 1578-1580 period. Why did Spain not attack and end the rival so weak? After all, the Ottomans were busy making wars with Russia (1577), Persia (1578) and Austrian Habsburgs (1593).God no, at best the Ottomans had equal resources to the Spanish Empire before the Iberian Union, and it's obvious that Spain, controlling vast colonies on a continent separated by an entire ocean, did not have less resources and manpower than the Ottomans.
The Spanish also weren't the ones who had to rebuild their fleet since they weren't the only fighting force. It was an alliance that seems to have been mainly composed of Venetian ships. Meaning it was Venice that had to rebuild. The fact that the Spaniards continued to send ships to America, Africa and Asia how false this is.
I answered this in my other thread to keep the debate more organised: