Maximum realistic French territorial expansion (excluding colonies) in the centuries before the French Revolution?

Futurist

Ad Honoris
May 2014
18,699
SoCal
#22
After Joseph died Charles became the ruler of Austria, this means that he would rule both Austria and Spain, Britain wanted to preserve the balance of power and an Austro-Spanish union would violate that balance, thus Britain withdrew its support for Austria.
Before he died, was Joseph expected to have children?
 

Futurist

Ad Honoris
May 2014
18,699
SoCal
#26
OK.

That said, though, if Joseph wasn't actually expected to have an additional son, wouldn't it have meant that Charles would have been his eventual successor even if he would have survived? If so, wouldn't there have still been a long-term risk of an Austro-Spanish union?
 
Feb 2019
599
Serbia
#27
OK.

That said, though, if Joseph wasn't actually expected to have an additional son, wouldn't it have meant that Charles would have been his eventual successor even if he would have survived? If so, wouldn't there have still been a long-term risk of an Austro-Spanish union?
At that point in time, yes. However if Joseph and his wife lived longer it is well possible that he could have more children. In the end the likelihood of the Austro-Spanish union died at the Treaty of Utrecht when Phillip was recognised as King of Spain.
 
Likes: Futurist

Futurist

Ad Honoris
May 2014
18,699
SoCal
#28
Makes sense.

BTW, I wonder if Philip's 1713 renunciation of the French throne for him and all of his male-line descendants would have actually been considered valid had the succession issue came up in France before the French Revolution. For instance, if Louis XV would have died in 1728 or earlier, would Philip have tried to retract his renunciation--and if so, would the other Great Powers have actually allowed him to do this?
 
Feb 2019
599
Serbia
#29
Makes sense.

BTW, I wonder if Philip's 1713 renunciation of the French throne for him and all of his male-line descendants would have actually been considered valid had the succession issue came up in France before the French Revolution. For instance, if Louis XV would have died in 1728 or earlier, would Philip have tried to retract his renunciation--and if so, would the other Great Powers have actually allowed him to do this?
Considering that Phillip tried to reclaim his lost Spanish lands and maybe even claim the French throne just a few years later in the War of the Quadruple Alliance I think he would've certainly tried something, and the great powers would've almost certainly intervened.
 
Likes: Futurist

Futurist

Ad Honoris
May 2014
18,699
SoCal
#30
Considering that Phillip tried to reclaim his lost Spanish lands and maybe even claim the French throne just a few years later in the War of the Quadruple Alliance I think he would've certainly tried something, and the great powers would've almost certainly intervened.
Would having Philip renounce the Spanish throne be enough to get the other Great Powers to accept this? Or are they going to treat Philip's renunciation as binding regardless of anything and thus support the claim of Louis, Duke of Orleans to the French throne?