- Jan 2017
- Republika Srpska
I assume the like means yes.Do you mean the part about the Latin Empire?
So, the Serbian King Stefan the First-Crowned wrote a biography of his father, Grand Prince Stefan Nemanja (later monk Simeon) and in that biography he also wrote about events that happened during his reign after Nemanja abdicated.
"the Blasphemous One incited two emperors against me, the Hungarian king named Andrija and the Greek Emperor called Jeris Filandar"
King Andrija is of course Andrew II of Hungary, but who is this Greek Emperor Jeris Filandar?
Stefan gives us the answer when he mentioned Filandar again:
"the law-breaking Bulgarian emperor Boril, who lived nearby, was jealous for his lawlessness was open to the world and indeed it surpassed the lawlessness of Herod. He rose with his power and with him was his son-in-law, Greek emperor Filandar who was in the glorious city of Constantine"
So, this Filandar was the ruler of Constantinople and also helped Boril against Stefan. Well, there is only one person who did that: Latin Emperor Henry of Flanders. And Filandar sounds rather similar to Flanders. And he was explicitly called the Greek Emperor despite obviously being a Latin ruler.
This might seem weird, but it is likely that in the minds of medieval Serb writers, anyone holding Constantinople could claim to be the rightful "Greek emperor" because Greek Emperors always ruled from Constantinople.