Before I respond any further, I just want to clarify where you're coming from. Are you saying the federal government possesses no authority other than what is expressly delegated by the text (i.e. states retain the ability to do any and all things not explicitly assigned to the federal government or prohibited to them by the written text)? That seems to be the factor your entire argument rests upon.
Now, is you opinion that these resumptions powers were "subjugated" by the Constitution is mostly 1) subjective or emotional, or 2) there is legal text and other documents to cite to show that is indded the "law of the land" (and Jefferson Davis is thus, guilty). Now, if it is #2, then you have knowledge that I don't have, and I would like to have it, and to clarify, that is exactly where I am coming from.
Is your question a tacit acknowledgement that federal authority to preempt States reclaiming delegated power is NOT in the Constitution?