"The Moors civilized Europe" theory

Jun 2017
2,974
Connecticut
But why they didnt civilized their own Africa
You realize Africans like Europeans and Native Americans until recently wouldn't view themselves as "Africans" or people of etc continent. That's viewing the world through a 19-20th century lens that no one would have held. These are modern identities not the ones Moors would have held.

Muslims were pan racial just like Christians. The Moors weren't all black but they were more black than say Egypt(which had about a USA like percentage of black people).
 

Tulius

Ad Honorem
May 2016
5,972
Portugal
The Moors weren't all black but they were more black than say Egypt
Don't know how to measure blackness in the skin colour, but that is debatable, since doesn't have ground. Assuming that by Moors you really mean Berbers (the most common assumption), there are Berbers isolated as the Guanches that weren't described as black. We don't have data for many of the Berber tribes. I don't even know if that could be much relevant.
 
Aug 2018
594
london
You realize Africans like Europeans and Native Americans until recently wouldn't view themselves as "Africans" or people of etc continent. That's viewing the world through a 19-20th century lens that no one would have held. These are modern identities not the ones Moors would have held.

Muslims were pan racial just like Christians. The Moors weren't all black but they were more black than say Egypt(which had about a USA like percentage of black people).
blacks are slaves in Berber culture, still to this day.
 

MAGolding

Ad Honorem
Aug 2015
2,967
Chalfont, Pennsylvania
Don't know how to measure blackness in the skin colour, but that is debatable, since doesn't have ground. Assuming that by Moors you really mean Berbers (the most common assumption), there are Berbers isolated as the Guanches that weren't described as black. We don't have data for many of the Berber tribes. I don't even know if that could be much relevant.
This question and my answer to it is relevant: Why did European writers and artists continue to depict the Moors as being black skinned, even though they were mostly Berbers and Arabs
 
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Sep 2014
957
Texas
By irrigation I meant artificial application of water to the land or soil.
the Moors in the lands they came from never developed irrigation. But they come to a land where the Romans built fabulous aqueducts to draw water down from the mountains and they develop it. I conside the Visigoths were not too technically savy, but the Romans who still lived in Spain were very smart people. And one thing about the Romans is, they shared ideas.
 
Nov 2013
724
Texas
the Moors in the lands they came from never developed irrigation. But they come to a land where the Romans built fabulous aqueducts to draw water down from the mountains and they develop it. I conside the Visigoths were not too technically savy, but the Rom
ans who still lived in Spain were very smart people. And one thing about the Romans is, they shared ideas.
Are you suggesting there was no irrigation Morrocco prior to 711?

Not even by dark age standards was Visigothic Spain a very intellectual place (wouldn't the British Isles, France, Cologne or Italy have a stronger claim on that?) And even in these areas, intellectual culture relied too heavily on the clergy. Not sure the Visigothic irrigation was as exemplary as you think it is either.

You have also not cited a single cultural accomplishment (beyond unreferenced rhetoric) about byzantine andalusia either.
 
Nov 2013
724
Texas
i have often heard this theory tossed around on the internet..Its often parroted by afrocentrist, pan-african elements..

They claim that the Moors were Black, and that they came to Europe, through Spain and civilized the White Europeans

they brought Europe civilization, they brought Europe mathematics, philosophy, science, literature etc..

often many people disagree with this, saying that the Moorish influence is overrated and overexaggerated, many deny it by saying the Moors were not of "Black"/African descent

despite the various fair and legit criticisms to this theory, is there some truth to it?
I do have a question here though; was Andalusia the cultural capital of Iberia during classical/pagan period? When (if ever) did Barcelona/Catalon/Aragon overtake Andalusia as the cultural capital of Iberia?