The myth of german better preparedness for a war in 1942 or 1944

Jan 2015
5,386
Ontario, Canada
#61
It is true that WW2 could be said to have been when Hitler tore up the Munich agreement and occupied Prague
Chamberlain could have taken any abuse
but to have been made a public fool so soon made him overreact ,
which Hitler read as being just some diplomatic buffoonery
it is interesting to conjecture that if he had not taken Prague , he probably could have had Dantzig for the asking
This is true. It makes no sense when one looks at it in this way. The Germans could have just compromised on Czecho-Slovakia in exchange for Poland.

However I went and did a bit of research on the subject and what I was able to find seems to confirm my earlier suspicion about a German-Polish agreement. For which I received much flack.
The thing that I noticed is that in the documents with regards to Czecho-Slovakia, Hitler only mentions Poland in a positive sense or at the worst as a neutral and specifically makes note of Soviet threats as a reason for why Poland would not join any potential war. It is therefore obvious that the Germans had no designs on Poland, at least not in 1938 and did not intend anything of that manner at the time.

There is really strong evidence that the Germans were not only not intending to invade Czecho-Slovakia but that they were largely relying on Polish, Hungarian and Romanian support and an inability by Stalin to respond militarily as well as a general unwillingness by Britain, France and Czecho-Slovakia to respond militarily. For some strange reason Hitler seemed to know that Stalin would not do anything to support Edvard Benes. Which means that Hitler was more than willing to use the diplomatic option and it was largely prompted by the issue of the Sudeten Germans rather than a direct military problem or a desire to annex Czechia.

In simple words: Hitler was not planning to invade Czecho-Slovakia until Czecho-Slovakia mobilized based on false information of German plans. Who gave them this information and why I have no idea. It seems that Benes was also attempting a last ditch effort to keep his state together. Except that when Hitler compromised Britain, France and Czecho-Slovakia interpreted this as backing down, which prompted them to take a harder stance and led to the Sudeten agreement. Which severely puts a hole in the appeasement narrative. For starters because Chamberlain had been carrying out rearmament since 1931 and because Chamberlain was planning to increase rearmament DURING the Sudeten incident and urged France to do so as well. Hitler then interpreted all of this as these guys preparing for war and ordered a naval buildup as a deterrent to British military action. He was determined to invade Czecho-Slovakia to remove the possibility of another front.

How this exactly ties into 1939 is really hard to piece together but what we can say for sure is that the Sudeten set off some alarms in Britain and France. Then removing Czechia from the map put them on high alert. The issue here is that Britain, France and Czecho-Slovakia's actions during the Sudeten issue set off the alarms in Germany. So it really looks like both of them are just reacting to each other, it's like a goddamn Ouroboros. The weird part is that Czecho-Slovakia mobiized first during the Sudeten crisis with the intention of going to war. Supposedly because they received false information detailing German plans. Where did this false information come from? But this might not have been true either, it could have just been the Czech government intending to go to war and rallying Britain and France behind them, using what could basically be called a false flag.
 
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