The term "dark ages" fair?

The term "dark ages" fair?

  • Yes

    Votes: 28 40.6%
  • No

    Votes: 40 58.0%
  • No idea

    Votes: 1 1.4%

  • Total voters


Ad Honorem
Jun 2011
California, USA
No, I have little to no knowledge in that area - I thought in general I'd made my comments pretty clear that they were specific to England (if it was not clear, I'm sorry)... which I know doesn't encompass the whole "middle ages" but it's the area I'm most knowledgeable in and therefore the only area I can really speak of. And what I see there is definitely a dark age following the fall of the Roman Empire, for all the reasons I've given.
I've answered to that too, you may disagree but precisely since it is a debate, I'd like to have your opinion on this. For me as I said, England was a backwater during the Roman era, only good for sending natural resources to Italy, and the only changewas that it became a germanic backwater. On the other hand, in the high middle ages, England was more developed than it had ever been before.

The reason why this period appear dark is that the three main regions of the empire, the orient, Greece / Asia minor and the west were separated. The byzantines and the Arabs kept the most desirable provinces (except for italy and perhaps a small part of france and spain) and they flourished. Western Europe did not, because it was already poor before.