The UN Rejects a Partition of Palestine in 1947

Futurist

Ad Honoris
May 2014
20,935
SoCal
#1
What if, for whatever reason, the U.N. General Assembly would have voted against partitioning Palestine in 1947?

For the record, the vote in the UNGA in our TL was only barely above the necessary two-thirds majority; thus, with a less sympathetic U.S. President (perhaps due to FDR picking a different VP back in 1944) and thus less U.S. pressure on various countries, this should probably be doable.

Anyway, what exactly would happen afterwards in this TL?

Any thoughts on this?

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Also, for the record, my guess is that the Zionists launch an insurgency in Palestine and still end up winning their war of independence if they are able to acquire large amounts of arms from somewhere; indeed, AFAIK, the Arabs were very disorganized in 1948-1949 and the Palestinians had most of their military capacity destroyed by the British in 1936-1939 during the Great Arab Revolt in Palestine.

However, Israel might very well have legitimacy problems after 1948-1949 in this TL; in turn, this could result in less cooperation between Israel and countries such as the U.S. and France in the post-independence war years. Thus, Israel might develop nukes (somewhat) later in this TL and also might perhaps perform less well in the Six Day War in this TL.
 

starman

Ad Honorem
Jan 2014
4,080
Connecticut
#2
Also, for the record, my guess is that the Zionists launch an insurgency in Palestine and still end up winning their war of independence if they are able to acquire large amounts of arms from somewhere;
I don't think they needed all that much to prevail.

However, Israel might very well have legitimacy problems after 1948-1949 in this TL; in turn, this could result in less cooperation between Israel and countries such as the U.S. and France in the post-independence war years.
I don't think it would've made much difference as France down to '62 saw the Israelis as an ally against the arabs it fought for some time.
 

Futurist

Ad Honoris
May 2014
20,935
SoCal
#3
I don't think they needed all that much to prevail.
Agreed; after all, AFAIK, the Arabs were militarily disorganized and uncooperative with each other in 1948 and most Palestinian military capacity was already destroyed by the British back in 1936-1939.

I don't think it would've made much difference as France down to '62 saw the Israelis as an ally against the arabs it fought for some time.
Yes, but wasn't France hesitant to vote for the 1947 U.N. Partition Plan of Palestine and only did so under large-scale U.S. pressure?
 

starman

Ad Honorem
Jan 2014
4,080
Connecticut
#4
Yes, but wasn't France hesitant to vote for the 1947 U.N. Partition Plan of Palestine and only did so under large-scale U.S. pressure?
But circumstances were different by the mid 50s. The French were battling Algerian rebels and wanted Nasser taken down to help end support for them. To do that they could use Israel as could Britain, for the same goal.
 

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