To what maximum extent had Spain Arabised during Muslim rule

Dec 2012
743
Konstantinoúpolis
What was the % of the population that adopted Arabic as their spoken language at the peak of Arabic adoption in the country?
I'm not sure of the percentage, however the upper classes would have been quick to adopt it, as it was the language of the ruling elite and government. It was also the language of science, literature and trade. I'm not sure about the lower classes though.:)

Hope this helps.:)
 

greatstreetwarrior

Ad Honorem
Nov 2012
3,873
but

isnt that the big deal to make uneducated Spaniard peasants speak an alien language within a few decades. Thats what I want to know considering that Southern Spanish before Arab era was nowhere related linguistically to Arabic.
 

Frank81

Ad Honorem
Feb 2010
5,149
Canary Islands-Spain
The change was not so so fast. It took several centuries, and not all of Spain was fully arabized. It is a matter of dispute how much extensive the adoption of Arabic was.

It is considered that Granada and southeastern Levant (Mediterranean coast) were fully arabized by 1200 AD. They could spoke a form of Arab strongly influenced by Latin. The opposite is true: common Muslims from other regions could speak a form of Latin, strongly influenced by Arab, 40% of vocabulary or more being Arabic.

Linguistic Arabization was more restricted than Arabization of social customs.
In any case, Arab was the language of administration, and lingua franca of Iberia. It was the language of prestige, the same is true for the writing. Latin speakers inside Al-Andalus, both Muslims and Christians, wrote in Arabic. For example, this is a Spanish text written in Arabic ("Aljamia" or [ame=http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Aljamiado]Aljamiado - Wikipedia, the free encyclopedia[/ame] )



Islamization was deeper than linguistic Arabization, though both process worked together.