U.S Territorial Acquisitions in the Western Hemisphere in a Germany-Wins-WWI Scenario

Futurist

Ad Honoris
May 2014
20,197
SoCal
#1
If Germany would have won World War I*, which territories in the Western Hemisphere would the United States of America have been likely to acquire afterwards?

As far as I know, the U.S. bought the Danish West Indies from Denmark in 1917 as a result of the U.S.'s fear that Germany would eventually acquire these islands if the U.S. did not buy them beforehand (regardless of whether or not this U.S. fear was justified, Denmark was willing to sell these islands to the U.S. during this time). If Germany would have won World War I, then could we see other countries such as France and the Netherlands being willing to sell some or all of their colonies in the Western Hemisphere to the U.S. in order to prevent Germany from eventually acquiring these colonies and, in France's case, in order to help pay the enormous reparations bill that Germany is likely to impose on it after World War I (after all, since the Entente/Allies imposed a large reparations bill on Germany after WWI in real life, I don't see why exactly Germany would have been any milder on this issue)? Would the U.S. be willing to purchase/buy additional European colonies in the Western Hemisphere after World War I? If so, then which European colonies (other than the Danish West Indies, obviously) would the U.S. have been likely to purchase in the event of a German World War I victory?

Thoughts on this?

*An easy way to do this would probably be to either have Britain remain neutral during WWI or to have Britain devote much less troops to the Western Front than it did in real life (either as a result of the BEF getting encircled and destroyed at Mons in 1914 or as a result of things in Ireland getting too heated if the outbreak of World War I is delayed by several months or by a year)).
 
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Futurist

Ad Honoris
May 2014
20,197
SoCal
#2
For reference, here is a map of the world's empires and colonies in 1914:



And here is a detailed map of European empires and colonies in Central America and the Caribbean in 1917:

 

WeisSaul

Ad Honorem
Mar 2012
2,836
New Amsterdam
#3
France might sell her Pacific and American territories to the US in order to pay off indemnities imposed upon them by the Germans.

Historically in February 1939 the French offered to cede their possessions in the Caribbean and the Pacific together with a lump sum payment of 10 billion francs, in exchange for the unlimited right to buy, on credit, American aircraft so its not as if the French were so proud of their empire that they couldn't prioritize.

Otherwise the US isn't taking anything extra. The British aren't handing anything over and they had naval superiority throughout the war even with the U-Boat campaign so I can see the British not having to cede anything to the Germans so they wouldn't have to fork anything over. If the British are giving their Caribbean colonies to anyone it's probably Canada (IIRC they tried to hand them off to the Canadians as a mandate after WWI historically but the Canadians were against it).

The reason the US got the Danish West Indies was the Danes had been trying to sell them to the US for years and Denmark was in a Finlandized relationship with the Germans anyway. The Netherlands for example don't have this circumstance.
 
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Futurist

Ad Honoris
May 2014
20,197
SoCal
#4
1. France might sell her Pacific and American territories to the US in order to pay off indemnities imposed upon them by the Germans.

2. Historically in February 1939 the French offered to cede their possessions in the Caribbean and the Pacific together with a lump sum payment of 10 billion francs, in exchange for the unlimited right to buy, on credit, American aircraft so its not as if the French were so proud of their empire that they couldn't prioritize.

3. Otherwise the US isn't taking anything extra. The British aren't handing anything over and they had naval superiority throughout the war even with the U-Boat campaign so I can see the British not having to cede anything to the Germans so they wouldn't have to fork anything over. If the British are giving their Caribbean colonies to anyone it's probably Canada

(4. IIRC they tried to hand them off to the Canadians as a mandate after WWI historically but the Canadians were against it).

5. The reason the US got the Danish West Indies was the Danes had been trying to sell them to the US for years

6. and Denmark was in a Finlandized relationship with the Germans anyway. The Netherlands for example don't have this circumstance.
1. Would the U.S. be willing to buy these French colonies, though?

2. This is extremely interesting; I did not know this before.

Why exactly did the U.S. reject this French offer, though?

3. Agreed.

4. Why exactly did Britain try to do this and why exactly did Canada reject this?

5. This appears to be only partially true; while Denmark did previously try selling the Danish West Indies to the U.S. in 1867 and again in 1902, it is worth noting that there was still significant opposition to this in Denmark for at least some of the pre-World War I era. After all, it was the upper house of the Danish Parliament which rejected the 1902 sale by just one vote. Also, I think that I previously read that the U.S. had to significantly increase (even if one adjusts for inflation) the amount of money that they offered to pay for the Danish West Indies in 1917 in comparison to the amount that was agreed upon in 1902 (the purchase price was $5 million in 1902 and $25 million in 1917). In addition, I believe that I previously read that the U.S. also had to threaten to occupy the Danish West Indies if Denmark refused to sell them (during World War I, obviously). Thus, Denmark does appear to have been a rather tough salesman in regards to this.

6. How exactly was Denmark Finlandized by Germany during this time? Do you have any examples of this? Also, why exactly wasn't the Netherlands Finlandized by Germany during this time as well?
 

Futurist

Ad Honoris
May 2014
20,197
SoCal
#5
Also, one more question--is the U.S. likely to keep (in the long(er) run) all of the European (especially, but maybe not only, French) colonies which it purchases after World War I in this scenario? If not, then exactly which of these colonies is likely to eventually become independent from U.S. rule at some further/future point in time?
 

Futurist

Ad Honoris
May 2014
20,197
SoCal
#6
*An easy way to do this would probably be to either have Britain remain neutral during WWI or to have Britain devote much less troops to the Western Front than it did in real life (either as a result of the BEF getting encircled and destroyed at Mons in 1914 or as a result of things in Ireland getting too heated if the outbreak of World War I is delayed by several months or by a year)).
Or, alternatively, you could have the French unwittingly "play along with their own demise" in World War I in this scenario similar to what the French did in 1940 in real life.