Was feudalism & manorialism practiced outside of Medieval Europe?

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Closed
Oct 2017
339
America ??
Was feudalism & manorialism ever practiced outside of medieval Europe, in ancient as well as modern history? Is there much evidence for it?
Feudalism & manorialism in its strict sense refers to bonded hierarchical system obligations & duties & land divisions, seems to be unique only to medieval Europe, but there doesn’t appear to be much evidence of feudalism outside of medieval Europe, before or after Medieval Europe. Were serfs & villeins exclusive to medieval Europe? Were peasants elsewhere free, or more free than those in medieval Europe? (geographically & chronologically/time speaking). One potential issue I can envision is peasants potentially leaving in large numbers their lands & whoever governs them for various reasons like either unpopular rule, a more attractive prospect living elsewhere, or other local crises etc. isn’t that a main reason for feudalism’s & manorialism’s development in the first place? Regardless peasants as well as virtually everyone across societies had minimal obligations to others, usually superiors, taxes usually in crops were minimum expectations & requirements.
& what exactly happened to feudalism & manorialism, what exactly was its fate?
 
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