- Mar 2016
- 1,222
- Australia
Had Europe followed the historical example of China and reunified itself, the period of East and West Francia in the 9th and 10th centuries would probably just look like one of the many eras in Chinese history where the empire fragmented into separate parts before eventually forming back together a century or two later. But of course this didn't happen, and Europe would never again resemble the semi-unified state during Charlemagne and Louis's reigns until arguably Napoleon's very short-lived resurrection of it (he himself repeatedly called himself the second Charlemagne and claimed he was restoring his empire, and indeed the borders of 1812 France and 814 Francia are remarkably similar). Was the tradition of strong autonomy within the nobility already too great in Western and Central Europe to reverse this? Conversely, was China's tradition of relatively disinterested and organised bureaucracy the greatest drive for continued re-unification, a unique trait that early medieval Europe did not possess? I've read that even during the peak of Charlemagne's empire each region had a lot of autonomy, even to the point of maintaining their old laws and customs (with the exception of non-Christian lands like in Saxony). Was regional autonomy ever at such a level in Chinese history post-unification?
I'm aware I've asked quite a lot of questions, so... make of this thread what you will. I was sort of just writing questions as they came to me.
I'm aware I've asked quite a lot of questions, so... make of this thread what you will. I was sort of just writing questions as they came to me.