The date was given by a poster on this forum ........ not the guy on TV.Your words, his words - it makes no difference. It's untrue. Here's a news story that corroborates what I'm saying.
In other words, you have no intention of doing any research to substantiate your claims beyond invoking some guy you saw on TV a while back. Nice.
That about 90% of Ashkenazim (and 100% of Sepharadim) aren't descended from the Khazars? Is that what you've been saying all along?
Well, in that case perhaps you can engage more extensively than quoting an unnamed Jew who you once saw on TV?
I didn't give any % on Ashkenazi DNA, you've been doing all that.
Back to the subject.There's obviously not zero. Nobody's disputing that conversions have historically happened. Nonetheless, only a very small minority of Ashkenazi Jews (12% according to this paper) have a distinctly European haplotype which may be from the Khazars. In any event, here is another academic paper demonstrating the shared middle eastern heritage of Ashkenazi and Sephardic Jews.
Do you believe or suspect then as the Khazar state dissolved before the date you gave approx 100 yrs earlier of the Polish settlement your referring to, that some Khazar refugee settlers may have already started a small settlement there which could of led to a bigger settlement destination as per the one your describing from the Italian Jews?
If not how would we even explain the possible 12% DNA you mentioned earlier?