Why did Ashkenazi Jews historically speak Yiddish?

Futurist

Ad Honoris
May 2014
16,699
SoCal
#1
Why did Ashkenazi Jews historically speak Yiddish? Was it because they originated in Germany and thus brought their language with them once a lot of them settled in Eastern Europe? Or was there another reason as to why Ashkenazi Jews historically spoke Yiddish?

Indeed, it's interesting that Ashkenazi Jews created a pseudo-German language when they lived in Germany but not a pseudo-Polish or pseudo-Ukrainian language once a lot of them moved to Eastern Europe.
 
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AlpinLuke

Ad Honoris
Oct 2011
25,534
Italy, Lago Maggiore
#4
Why did Ashkenazi Jews historically speak Yiddish? Was it because they originated in Germany and thus brought their language with them once a lot of them settled in Eastern Europe? Or was there another reason as to why Ashkenazi Jews historically spoke Yiddish?

Indeed, it's interesting that Ashkenazi Jews created a pseudo-German language when they lived in Germany but not a pseudo-Polish or pseudo-Ukrainian language once a lot of them moved to Eastern Europe.
???

Had they to speak Dutch?
I guess that we are talking about "אידיש " [there is an other definition, but probably it's a dialectal differentiation]. Curiously enough Northern Italy is one of the lands where Yiddish developed, but a part this detail, the definition itself is well recent. What we today call "Yiddish" is what isn't the sacred language [the "לשון־קודש", just "sacred language, or, to translitarate form the Hebrew ... "loshn-koydesh"].

Anyway, as for I know, there is a difference between Western Yiddish [the one spoken here in Northern Italy and Germany] and Eastern Yiddish [the one spoken in Eastern Europe].

This said, not to become boring, the Yiddish was a Jewish vulgar [like early Italian was born as a vulgar version of Latin]. At least this is what I can understand [I'm not a Jew].
 
Likes: Futurist
Jul 2016
8,661
USA
#5
That article certainly provides some answers but doesn't explain why Ashkenazi Jews continued to speak Yiddish after they moved to Eastern Europe and lived in Eastern Europe for centuries.
Because it was their language.

They lived primarily in tight knit communities, while they often learned the local language, since they stuck with their own so much, they primarily spoke Yiddish. As time went on many integrated more so with the local community, but because Yiddish was still so heavily a part of their culture and Jewish identity, the language was still common.
 
Likes: Futurist

Futurist

Ad Honoris
May 2014
16,699
SoCal
#6
???

Had they to speak Dutch?
I guess that we are talking about "אידיש " [there is an other definition, but probably it's a dialectal differentiation]. Curiously enough Northern Italy is one of the lands where Yiddish developed, but a part this detail, the definition itself is well recent. What we today call "Yiddish" is what isn't the sacred language [the "לשון־קודש", just "sacred language, or, to translitarate form the Hebrew ... "loshn-koydesh"].

Anyway, as for I know, there is a difference between Western Yiddish [the one spoken here in Northern Italy and Germany] and Eastern Yiddish [the one spoken in Eastern Europe].

This said, not to become boring, the Yiddish was a Jewish vulgar [like early Italian was born as a vulgar version of Latin]. At least this is what I can understand [I'm not a Jew].
What is the difference between these two types of Yiddish?
 
Jul 2012
3,110
Dhaka
#9
I think that these conclusions ended up being subsequently debunked.
And revived again.

"However, recent archeological excavations have uncovered widespread shifts in burial practices. Around the mid 800s burials in Khazaria began to take on a decidedly Jewish flavor. Grave goods disappeared almost altogether. Judging by interment evidence, by 950 Judaism had become widespread among all classes of Khazar society."

Source: Khazars
 

Futurist

Ad Honoris
May 2014
16,699
SoCal
#10
And revived again.

"However, recent archeological excavations have uncovered widespread shifts in burial practices. Around the mid 800s burials in Khazaria began to take on a decidedly Jewish flavor. Grave goods disappeared almost altogether. Judging by interment evidence, by 950 Judaism had become widespread among all classes of Khazar society."

Source: Khazars
Yes, the Khazars became Jews, but this doesn't automatically mean that the current Ashkenazi Jews are descended from the Khazars.
 

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