Why did it take France an extra 14 years to enfranchise Algerian Muslim women?

Futurist

Ad Honoris
May 2014
22,239
SoCal
According to the information here, France enfranchised the women in European France in 1944 but it was only in 1958 that France actually enfrachised Algerian Muslim women:

Women's suffrage - Wikipedia

Why was there a 14-year gap between these two things?
 

pikeshot1600

Ad Honorem
Jul 2009
9,960
It probably had to do with Moslem men not wanting women to be less controlled and being influenced by un-Islamic culture. Not sure what has happened in Algeria since the French left.
 
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Larrey

Ad Honorem
Sep 2011
5,807
1945-1958 : un million et demi de citoyennes interdites de vote !

What apparently happened was that the vote for Muslim Algerian men AND women was adopted in principle in 1944, in Algeirs. BUT with the provision that the exact application of this would depend on a subsequent decision of an also newly constituted Algerian political assembly. This assembly never even tabled the motion of enfranchising Algerian Muslim women. Which meant the question wasn't broached until the profound political upheaval resulting in a new system in 1958.

What it stuck on in the Algerian assembly is a little less obvious (since it wasn't even discusses, there seems to have been no conflict forcing parties to argue a stance), but it tends to be the case that places that operate on a direct logic of sorting people in categories of domination and subjugation tend to be more radical about maintaining that than the powers across the waters.
 
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