Why did South America not develop as much as North America

greatstreetwarrior

Ad Honorem
Nov 2012
3,852
Both had a long time after colonization to be free countries. Why did North America develop much better than the south? What were the factors responsible for this?
 
Dec 2014
350
Italy
Both had a long time after colonization to be free countries. Why did North America develop much better than the south? What were the factors responsible for this?
Well ... according to historians (not to me) ... because imperial Spain had her own "feudal" system, that is, "audiencia" and the "system of viceroyalty". So, the single states didn't develop like the United States.
 

Space Shark

Ad Honorem
Mar 2012
3,474
Redneck Country, AKA Texas
Both had a long time after colonization to be free countries. Why did North America develop much better than the south? What were the factors responsible for this?
The Latin American countries were largely controlled by dictatorships not long after independence. In fact, I dare say that no country in Latin America, with the possible exception of Costa Rica, managed to go without at least one dictatorship.
 
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greatstreetwarrior

Ad Honorem
Nov 2012
3,852
The Latin American countries were largely controlled by dictatorships not long after independence. In fact, I dare say that no country in Latin America, with the possible exception of Costa Rica, managed to go without at least one dictatorship.
why did North America not see such instabilities then? Basically want to understand why the contrast?
 
Dec 2014
350
Italy
why did North America not see such instabilities then? Basically want to understand why the contrast?
The contrast? Two differet worlds: Anglo-saxon and Latin, with two different systems of way of life: North America = entrepreneurial; South America = delegation.
 

Tairusiano

Ad Honorem
Jun 2012
2,975
Brazil
why did North America not see such instabilities then? Basically want to understand why the contrast?
You are comparing different countries different realities different historic development, different ideologies, well even North America was not uniform not forgetting Mexico is in North America(some even include Central America) and Mexico dont developed like Canada and USA.
Not forgetting that Argentina was very rich country though it has collapsed, for political reasons.
 
Last edited:
Aug 2015
263
Indianapolis
Also quite different geographically. Between the rain forest and Andes Mountains, there is a high percentage of SA that is a lot harder to develop than most of NA.


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greatstreetwarrior

Ad Honorem
Nov 2012
3,852
Well lets assume only Canada, US and Mexico in North. (Lets keep Cuba out of this since its political development historically was differenat and it is also pretty isolated corner).

Lets take other nations to be part of South.

Now even if you take Mexico, it is probably the most developed of the Spanish speaking nations of America, probably because it is in the north. So why is South less developed? Despite both being colonized and getting free around the same time. Infact unlike the US west which was unexplored for long, South American map was reasonably well explored by Portuguese and Spanish.
 
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Rodger

Ad Honorem
Jun 2014
6,171
US
The contrast? Two differet worlds: Anglo-saxon and Latin, with two different systems of way of life: North America = entrepreneurial; South America = delegation.
Yes, free market and basic capitalism in the USA and Canada. This is virtually absent in the South American nations until recent memory. After all, places like Brazil had as much natural resources as the USA. Each was manged differently, however.
 

Tairusiano

Ad Honorem
Jun 2012
2,975
Brazil
Well lets assume only Canada, US and Mexico in North. (Lets keep Cuba out of this since its political development historically was differenat and it is also pretty isolated corner).

Lets take other nations to be part of South.
You are dividing this parts because of language lets use the geographical and accepted way of the continent if you start dividing again is would become even more complicated than it is already was, in reality Central American had more contact with North than with South, they are colonized by the spanish but after the Independence they took different ways.
Latin America is not the same of South America.

Now even if you take Mexico, it is probably the most developed of the Spanish speaking nations of America, probably because it is in the north
For most part of the time it was Argentina it is in South America, today is Brasil also in South America.

.
So why is South less developed? Despite both being colonized and getting free around the same time.
you are trying to qualificate different countries like if they are all equals.
I will give a example of differance in Brasil when the King John returned to portugal in 1821 he took all the treasure of Brasil with him to Portugual, when Brasil get his independence there was no money, it was nescessary to start again and take money from the British to make the new country start working again a question something like that happaned in Canada for example.

Infact unlike the US west which was unexplored for long, South American map was reasonably well explored by Portuguese and Spanish.
With respect but do you read about the history of South America, a lot of wars in South America happaned because they dont mapped the continent they made lines in places that they dont even know that existed or not, a guy called Candido Rondon passed 30 years mapping the interior of Brasil, and he mapped only 15% of the country, in reality they are still mapping some places in Amazon now, in Argentina they did not know nearly nothing about Patagonia, South America was and is much more unknown than USA.
 
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