- Aug 2018
Oh God, he is one of those who thinks Sanskrit is the same as Proto-Indo-European.There is nothing comical about that assertion. Go check the root words.
For God's sake, Zoroastrianism did not originate exactly in India but it did originate close to the Hindu cultural area in Afghanistan and was heavily influenced by the Vedic religion of northern India. All scholars and experts of Zoroastrianism will agree with this point. That's why we see Vedic gods like Mithra appearing in the Gathas, that's why the Gathas are also extremely similar to the Vedas in composition. Even Zoroastrian rituals are very similar to Hindu ones. The importance of fire and of the ritual drink of soma (called haoma by the Gathas, a cognate if not outright derivation from the Sanskrit) all attest to the strong Vedic/early Hindu influence over Zoroastrianism. That's why it's not inaccurate to say that Zoroastrianism is Indian, and that Zoroastrianism is a breakaway of Hinduism in much the same way Christianity and Islam are in relation to Judaism.Zoroastrians had nothing to do with India except trading with Gujarat in the Sassanid era (224 to 651 AD) till they came to India when they faced persecution in Iran by Muslims in the 8th Century. They were neither Hindu nor Indian. That they once followed the pre-Vedic culture in Central Asia does not make them Hindus. Hinduism is the product of assimilation of Vedic culture and the indigenous Indian religion and philosophy. Of course, Zoroastrians who settled in India are very much Indians.