Why didn't Russia militarily intervene in Ottoman Armenia during the Hamidian massacres in the mid-1890s?

Futurist

Ad Honoris
May 2014
14,273
SoCal
#12
One would think that Russia would have more sympathy for Christian Armenians than for its own Jewish population, though.
Also, I forgot to mention one more reason for a Russian military intervention: Ottoman Armenia has some very nice coastline on the Black Sea that Russia could turn into a popular vacation destination once it becomes more developed and much wealthier.
 
Oct 2018
1,209
Adelaide south Australia
#13
Anyway, why didn't Russia militarily intervene back then?

Also, what would have happened had Russia indeed decided to militarily intervene during this time?

Do you man like the UN nations rushed to the aid of the Tutsi being massacred in Ruwanda, or the recent genocide in Sudan?

Nothing has changed; countries make policy and decide action based on their perceived best interest.Countries never intervene against injustice on the basis of morality. Moral good comes from wars /intervention by happy accident.
 
Jan 2016
1,064
Collapsed wave
#14
Britain didn't intervene in 1877-1878, did it?
Umm they did actually, otherwise the russians were on their way to Constantinople.

Intervention by the Great Powers[edit]
Under pressure from the British, Russia accepted the truce offered by the Ottoman Empire on January 31, 1878, but continued to move towards Constantinople.
The British sent a fleet of battleships to intimidate Russia from entering the city, and Russian forces stopped at San Stefano. Eventually Russia entered into a settlement under the Treaty of San Stefano on March 3, by which the Ottoman Empire would recognize the independence of Romania, Serbia, and Montenegro, and the autonomy of Bulgaria.
Russo-Turkish War (1877–1878) - Wikipedia
 
Likes: Futurist
Apr 2014
337
Istanbul Turkey
#15
Berlin Congress at the end of 1878 already resolved minorities issue in Ottoman Empire as well as Straits from European (I mean Britain , France , Germany , Austria Hungary) perspective. If Russia tried to dissolve this status quo again less than 20 years (and again due to minorities issue which was the Russian Casus Beli for Crimean war in 1850'ies and 1877-78 Russo-Ottoman War) they wouldn't just find Britain and France opposing them (and they intevened to 1877-78 Russo-Ottoman War eventually , late I know but British PM Benjamin Disraeli sent Royal Navy through Dardanneles to protect Constantinopol once Russian Army came sight of the city) but also Germany and Austria Hungary. None of them wished Russia have too much influence on Caucaus , Iran and Balkans at the expense of Ottomans or Russian Navy entering Mediterranean. Wilhelminate Germany was just making first approaches to Ottoman Empire in mid 1890'ies and a young Kaiser Wilhelm II with temper issues wouldn't let his latest ally/protectorate Ottoman Empire to be humiliated again. Considering that a wiser Russian PM (Sergei Witte) who was well aware that both in railroad network as well as in industry Germany had been well ahead of Russian Empire , was in charge of Russian foreign policy back then ( much younger Tsar Nicholas II who had just took the throne , was much more mindful of his advice back then) Russian policy of non inteferance is not suprising.
 
Likes: Futurist
Jan 2016
1,064
Collapsed wave
#16
Berlin Congress at the end of 1878 already resolved minorities issue in Ottoman Empire as well as Straits from European (I mean Britain , France , Germany , Austria Hungary) perspective.
A little bit off topic, but no it didn't, quite the opposite actually, that's why the region had three wars in the following decades leading up to the WW1. There is a term "balkanisation" created to describe it. It was a consequence of the british politics in the region.
 
Nov 2010
7,332
Cornwall
#17
A little bit off topic, but no it didn't, quite the opposite actually, that's why the region had three wars in the following decades leading up to the WW1. There is a term "balkanisation" created to describe it. It was a consequence of the british politics in the region.
Ah! Not a consequence of the Ottoman Empire then?
 
Nov 2010
7,332
Cornwall
#18
One would think that Russia would have more sympathy for Christian Armenians than for its own Jewish population, though.
I doubt it. Russia had enough problems and the Crimea didn't go too well prior to that. I'm a bit baffled why they think they would have to be honest


Also, I forgot to mention one more reason for a Russian military intervention: Ottoman Armenia has some very nice coastline on the Black Sea that Russia could turn into a popular vacation destination once it becomes more developed and much wealthier.
Joking right? If not I guess it explains the thread.
 
Likes: Futurist
Dec 2017
474
Australia
#19
Massacre of Armenians didn’t happen in Russian empire in 1894-1896. It happened inIstanbul and around Wan lake (present day eastern Turkey) - Ottoman empire. Russian intervention would mean declaration of war against Ottoman empire. British empire, possibly Austro-Hungarian too would intervene. In those days European empires didn’t want Russia to control Bosporus and Dardanelles straits.
 
Last edited:
Jan 2016
1,064
Collapsed wave
#20
Ah! Not a consequence of the Ottoman Empire then?
(last post on this, because is not quite on topic)
Well, the Ottoman Empire was defeated and not a factor in what happened. To illustrate here the maps of San Stefano vs Berlin: San Stefano was correctly including the ethnic areas. After british interference the maps were redrawn and Bulgaria was split. Of course ethnic tensions will arise when half of the population suddenly realizes they are put into the wrong country. The british btw did pretty much the same in the middle east with similar results.


Karti_od_Sanstefan_i_Berlinski_kongres_1878.jpg
 

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