Why was France more susceptible to revolutionary sentiment in the 18th and 19th centuries than other countries were?

Futurist

Ad Honoris
May 2014
18,742
SoCal
#1
Why was France more susceptible to revolutionary sentiment in the 18th and 19th centuries than other countries were? I mean, France had four revolutions between 1789 and 1900 (specifically 1789, 1830, 1848, and 1870) whereas other countries had either one or zero revolutions during this time. France was also the first large European country other than Switzerland (which wasn't that large in comparison to France) to become a republic--with it becoming a republic in 1792, 1848, and again in 1870--with France almost permanently keeping its republican form of government since 1870 (there were several years during WWII when France had to endure Vichy rule, but then republicanism was restored in France). The only other large European country to become a republic in the 19th century was Spain--and its republican experiment quickly fizzled out (just like it did during a second attempt in the 1930s).

Why exactly was France more susceptible to revolutionary sentiment and republicanism in the 18th and 19th centuries than other countries were? By the late 1870s, republicanism was the dominant position in France while the idea of republican government elsewhere in Europe at that point in time still seemed like an extremely long way off.

Any thoughts on this?
 

pugsville

Ad Honorem
Oct 2010
9,084
#2
Why was France more susceptible to revolutionary sentiment in the 18th and 19th centuries than other countries were? I mean, France had four revolutions between 1789 and 1900 (specifically 1789, 1830, 1848, and 1870) whereas other countries had either one or zero revolutions during this time. France was also the first large European country other than Switzerland (which wasn't that large in comparison to France) to become a republic--with it becoming a republic in 1792, 1848, and again in 1870--with France almost permanently keeping its republican form of government since 1870 (there were several years during WWII when France had to endure Vichy rule, but then republicanism was restored in France). The only other large European country to become a republic in the 19th century was Spain--and its republican experiment quickly fizzled out (just like it did during a second attempt in the 1930s).

Why exactly was France more susceptible to revolutionary sentiment and republicanism in the 18th and 19th centuries than other countries were? By the late 1870s, republicanism was the dominant position in France while the idea of republican government elsewhere in Europe at that point in time still seemed like an extremely long way off.

Any thoughts on this?
Because France remained divided after the first revolution/napoleon/bourbon restoration.
 
Likes: Futurist
Jan 2017
84
North Carolina
#4
France had the highest standards of living. In addition France also had the most freedoms of any country in Europe outside of England. And one of the highest literate rates among the general populace of Europe. With the added problems of family structure and regional loyalties breaking down (thanks to urbanization and other events for the last few centuries).

As many sociologists say, these four factors lead to instability more than anything else is what leads to social discontent, eventually revolutions, and later social instability.
 
May 2017
918
France
#9
As some monarquists said:the "band of the four";Voltaire,Rousseau,Diderot,Montesquieu.It is not evident to contest those four autors.
People know 1789,1830,1848,1871.....But there is also 1792 (the Tuileries) 1832 (quartier Saint Merri,with a splendid description of Victor Hugo in the "Misérables") 1834 (Tansnonain street) and the fights of 1849 and 1851.
 
Likes: Futurist