Why was France more susceptible to revolutionary sentiment in the 18th and 19th centuries than other countries were?

Larrey

Ad Honorem
Sep 2011
5,829
You had the Poles too(don't know much about Poland/Lithuania, it's my blind spot in Euro history but it sure wasn't a monarchy),
Oh no, it was a monarchy alright. The kings might have had no power, but they weren't gotten rid of. That is until Poland's neighbours carved it up and swallowed the pieces. And even when attempting Polands restoration that came with kings again.
List of Polish monarchs - Wikipedia
 
Oct 2009
419
Behind a screen
Compared to some other rich countries, there was almost no channel to peacefully get some say, even for many of the well-off.

So, on the one hand France was in the middle of the enlightenment movement, where new ideas were hotly debated, but on the other hand political power was in the hands of too small a group.

The French Revolution didn't start with farmers waving pitchforks or Parisiennes throwing pans. The first push came from quite well-off, educated people that resented an incompetent governement that didn't give them a say or a chance to give them a say.

I England for instance, a lot of that energy was channelled into striving to get a political career within the system. In France they were locked out.
 
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Oct 2009
419
Behind a screen
On the one hand France was in the middle of the enlightenment movement, where new ideas were hotly debated, but on the other hand political power was in the hands of too small a group.

The French Revolution didn't start with farmers waving pitchforks or Parisiennes throwing pans. The first push came from quite well-off, educated people that resented an incompetent governement that didn't give them a say or a chance to give them a say.

In England, for instance, a lot of that energy was channelled into striving to get a political career within the system. In France they were locked out