Why was only Hungary and Austria which gave rights for the minorities in pre WW1 era?

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Closed
Dec 2013
55
Boston
#1
Other greatpowers , such as Britain France Russia Germany were against the minority rights.


ABOUT MINORIY RIGHTS:


In July 1849, the Hungarian Revolutionary Parliament proclaimed and enacted the first laws on ethnic and minority rights in the world. It gave minorities the freedom to use their mothertongue at local administration, at tribunals, in schools, in community life and even within the national guard of non-Magyar councils. However these laws were overturned after the united Russian and Austrian armies crushed the Hungarian Revolution. After the Kingdom of Hungary reached the Compromise with the Habsburg Dynasty in 1867, one of the first acts of its restored Parliament was to pass a Law on Nationalities (Act Number XLIV of 1868).


The situation of minorities in Hungary were much more better than in contemporary Western Europe. Other highly multiethnic /multinational countries were: France Russia and UK.


See the multi-national UK:

The situation of Scottish Irish Welsh people in "Britain" during the English hegemony is well known. They utmost forgot their original language, only english language cultural educational institutions existed. The only language was English in judiciary procedures and in offices and public administrations. It was not a real "United" Kingdom, it was rather a greater England.


See the multiethnic France:

In 1870, France was a similar-degree multi-ethnic state as Hungary, only 50% of the population of France spoke the French language as mothertongue. The other half of the population spoke Occitan, Catalan, Corsican, Alsatian, West Flemish, Lorraine Franconian, Gallo, Picard or Ch’timi and Arpitan etc... Many minority languages were closer to spanish or Italian language than French) French governments banned minority language schools , minority language newspapers minority theaters. They banned the usage of minority languages in offices , public adimistration, and judiciary procedures. The ratio of french mothertongue increased from 50% to 91% during the 1870-1910 period!!!

The situation in German Empire was well known (Polish territories)

What about Russia?

Russian Empire was even more multiethnic state than Hungary, without the existence of minority rights. The forced russification is also well known.


Just look the contemporary pre WW1-era Europe:
Magyarization was not so Harsh as western European situation, because the minorities were defended by minority rights and laws. Contemporary Western Europe did not know the minority rights, therefore they covered up their minorities. Were there state sponsored minority schools in Western European countries? NO. How many official languages existed in Western-European states? Only 1 official language! Could minorities use their languages in the offices of public administration in self-governments , in tribunals in Western Europe? No, they couldn't. What about minority newspapers? etc.. etc...
 
Nov 2013
1,470
Serbia
#2
Because there were more Slavs in the AH than the Germans and Hungarians combined. Slavs-45% Germans-23% Hungarians-19% Romanians-6% Other-5%. They had to give them more rights than in other countries, because I'm not sure was there a country in Europe at the time which had such minorities percentage. The difference, IMO, between AH and France, Russia, etc. was that the AH had a large corpus of people of the same origin (Slavs) unlike France and Russia where the origin of the minorities was diverse.
 
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Dec 2013
55
Boston
#3
Because there were more Slavs in the AH than the Germans and Hungarians combined. Slavs-45% Germans-23% Hungarians-19% Romanians-6% Other-5%. They had to give them more rights than in other countries, because I'm not sure was there a country in Europe at the time which had such minorities percentage. Minorities that were nationaly aware, that is.


It was true only in the Austrian State, but it was not true in the Hungarian State.
see the charts of Ethnic relations part of Austria-Hungary article in English Wikipedia.
 
Last edited:
Dec 2013
55
Boston
#5
Those were the percentages for Austria-Hungary in whole given by Alan J.P. Taylor
But Austria and Hungary were a personal union with separated government and parliament and separate laws, the two countries were linked by the person of the common monarch.
In this case, the common statistics about "A-H as a whole" is meaningless.
 
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Sep 2013
1,384
Scotland
#6
Very progressive for the time Johnny, pity they mucked it all up by attacking Serbia and dragging Europe into the catastrophe & carnage which ended the Hapsburg circus altogether.

Gushel.
 

Tulun

Ad Honorem
Nov 2010
3,807
Western Eurasia
#7
The Austrian part was a federal state, with each having relatively big autonomy but they were all subject to common parliament (and they also had their own assemblies). Hungary proper was unitary + Croatia-Slavonia (and Fiume) having autonomy from Hungary proper (Cro-Sla also having own parliament( . The relation between Hungary and Austria back then was described by contemporary public lawyers as real union (reál unió, i don't know if real union is the proper translation?), less than a federation but closer than a personal union as we not only shared a common monarch but we also had common affairs and for those we also had common ministries (common ministry of foreign affairs, ministry for common military and the ministry of finance for the common affairs). The minority policies were not part of the common affairs but in the Austrian side there were states where minorities were the majority and in Hungary also Hungarian ethnic group only had relative majority.
 
Nov 2013
1,470
Serbia
#8
But Austria and Hungary were a personal union with separated government and parliament and separate laws, the two countries were linked by the person of the common monarch.
In this case, the common statistics about "A-H as a whole" is meaningless.
The title said "Hungary and Austria" so I presumed you meant the AH. Nevertheless, the Kingdom of Hungary incorporated what is today Slovakia, Slovenia, Croatia, parts of Poland and Ukraine, Serbs of Vojvodina (Slavic corpus) and Romania. I don't know the numbers for Hungary alone but this looks like Hungary had a lot of minorities.
 

Tulun

Ad Honorem
Nov 2010
3,807
Western Eurasia
#10
Galicia was part of Austria not Hungary.
smaller parts of Árva/Orava and Szepes/Spis counties of Hungary were ceded to Poland in the Trianon treaty ( a total of 519 sq kms, 25 settlements, 23620 inhabitants, majority Poles, minority Slovaks and a few hundred Hungarians and Germans).

in present day's Ukraine its Zakarpatya oblast (Hungarian Kárpátalja) was part of the Hungarian Kingdom, it was ceded to Czechoslovakia in the Trianon treaty, transfered to the Ukrainian SSR after ww2.
 
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