- Sep 2019
Is there a specific reason ? Isn't any Spain King wanted to create the Iberian union ?
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Philip II actually did that. Iberian union existed between 1583 and 1640. However, Portugal regained independence when Spain was on decline.Is there a specific reason ? Isn't any Spain King wanted to create the Iberian union ?
As already stated by some users you can find the answers in any encyclopaedia like Wikipedia. It is a wide question and for some time periods even erroneous.Is there a specific reason ? Isn't any Spain King wanted to create the Iberian union?
Filipe II was uncle of D. Sebastião. Don’t know the Henrique (Henry) who you are mentioning. Maybe Cardeal D. Henrqiue that was also D. Sebastião’s uncle but wasn’t king of Castile, but king of Portugal after D. Sebastião’s dead. But you are right, the Castilians and the “Spanish” did try.I mean, the Spanish did try. When king Sebastian died in a rather fool hardy affair in an expedition to Morrocco, his uncle Henry who was the king of Castile operated Portugal as a personal union among the other crowns he held. This became known as the Iberian union.
The English, the French and the Dutch were in Europe allies to Portugal. But what the assistance provided by the English?The Portuguese did eventually win their independence again after assistance from the English. After a period of 60 years.
The “accident of history” idea was popularized by Claudio Sánchez Albornoz. I think the idea is misleading. I think following his idea all in history can be considered an accident. Portugal was made by the political will of a few people, namely, among them, queen Teresa and her son king D. Afonso Henriques. At the time not much separated the Portuguese from the Galician, but it was also a time that the feudal bonds were more relevant that the linguistic/ethnic ones.Yes a little venture into basic Wiki history is probably wise. So they did, and there were other attempts. But Spain and Portugal are both young countries really. Bit complicated before that. For example Malaga has only been part of Spain - Castilla since 1487! Of the original Christian Kingdoms of Portugal, Navarra, Castilla, Leon, Aragon and Barcelona/Condados Catalanes, the last 5 ended up as 'Spain' and Portugal ended up as Portugal.
Accident of history as Martin and I like to say, though Latino doesn't really apprecaite that view
Although reasonable (and with some minor errors), you have there a video with ten minutes with information that can be read in half in any encyclopaedia.Below is a good YouTube video on the subject
Actually to two sons in law, but not as a kingdom but as a county. First to Raimundo (Urraca’s husband) that showed himself not enable to hold the frontier with the Muslims, then to Henrique (Teresa’s husband) that showed better military capabilities.Wasn't Portugal originally a wedding gift from a King of Spain to his son in law.
Basically that is correct. Some small notes: Aragon was a crown that didn’t belong to the Crown of Castile. The Personal Union is from 1581. The “Independence” (or more correctly the breaking of the personal union) was gained in 1640 and recognized in 1668 by “Spain” (the crowns of Castile and Aragon).''Spain''(This term is anachronistic, it was the Crown of Castile until the early 16th century and after that it was a composite monarchy composed of Castile, Aragon, Navarre etc. Spain as a political entity in this sense emerges from the early 18th century.) invaded Portugal several times. Phillip II did manage to take over Portugal and put them in a personal union in 1583, this lasted until 1640 when Portugal revolted against Spain and won their independence in 1668. Other times when Spain tried to invade Portugal include 1762-1763 as part of the 7 Years' War (In co-operation with France.) , 1807 as part of the Peninsular War (Also in co-operation with France.) and in the 1383-1385 Portuguese interregnum.
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